Introduction
Grace is a term used for God’s unmerited favor to man throughout the Scriptures. God’s grace was evident in his dealings with man throughout the Old Testament and in the Gospels. But when we come to the Apostle Paul the concept of grace explodes. Paul used the term χάρις in a technical sense to describe God’s salvation by faith apart from works, the Christian’s freedom from the Mosaic Law, his own unique ministry, and in his greetings, farewell, and thankfulness. This article will explore Paul’s employment of grace as a fundamental concept of the Christian life.
Old Testament Witness of Grace
In the Old Testament, the verb חָנַן is used 78 times and its related noun חֵן is found 69 times (Genesis 6.8, 18.3, 19.19, 30.27, 32.5, 33.8, 10, 15, 34.11, 39.4, 21, 47.25, 29, 50.4; Exodus 3.21, 11.3, 12.36, 33.12, 13, 16, 17, 34.9; Numbers 11.11, 15, 32.5; Deuteronomy 24.1; Judges 6.17; Ruth 2.2, 10, 13; 1 Samuel 1.18, 16.22, 20.3, 29, 25.8, 27.5; 2 Samuel 14.22, 15.25, 16.4; 1 Kings 11.19; Esther 2.15, 17, 5.2, 8, 7.3, 8.5; Psalms 45.2, 84.11; Proverbs 1.9, 3.4, 22, 34, 4.9, 5.19, 11.16, 13.15, 17.8, 22.1. 11, 28.23, 31.30; Ecclesiastes 9.11, 10.12; Jeremiah 31.2; Nahum 3.4; Zechariah 4.7, 12.10). These terms are used for grace, favor, or goodwill.
Another Hebrew word תְּחִנָּה is used 25 times (Joshua 11.20; 1 Kings 8.28, 30, 38, 45, 49, 52, 54, 9.3; 2 Chronicles 6.19, 29, 35, 39, 33.13; Ezra 9.8; Psalms 6.9, 55.1, 119.170; Jeremiah 36.7, 37.20, 38.26, 42.2, 9; Daniel 9.20) of grace. Therefore, in the Old Testament, these terms demonstrate a usage of 172 times for grace, mercy, or supplication. Most of the uses involve relationships between individuals. However, in the case of Moses and the nation of Israel, it is frequently used of God’s attitude (Exodus 3.21, 11.3, 12.36, 33.12, 13, 16-17, 34.9; Numbers 11.11, 15, 32.5).
The New Testament Witness of Grace
The primary word for grace in the New Testament is χάρις. It occurs 156 times in 148 verses. Below is the distribution breakdown:
| Sources | Passages | Frequency |
| Gospels | ||
| Luke | Luke 1.30, 2.40, 52, 4.22, 6.32, 33, 6.34, 17.9 | 8x |
| John | John 1.14, 16, 17 | 4x |
| Acts | Acts 2.47, 4.33, 6.8, 7.10, 46, 11.23, 13.43, 14.3, 26, 15.11, 40, 18.27, 20.24, 32, 24.27, 25.3, 9 | 17x |
| Epistles | ||
| Paul | Romans 1.5, 7, 3.24, 4.4, 16, 5.2, 15, 17, 20, 21, 6.1, 14, 15, 17, 7.25, 11.5, 6, 12.3, 12.6, 15.15, 16.20, 24 | 24x |
| 1 Corinthians 1:3, 4, 3:10, 10:30, 15:10, 57, 16:3, 23 | 10x | |
| 2 Corinthians 1:2, 12, 15, 2:14, 4:15, 6:1, 8:1, 4, 6, 7, 9, 16, 19, 9:8, 14, 15, 12:9, 13:14; | 19x | |
| Galatians 1:3, 6, 15, 2:9, 21, 5:4, 6:18 | 7x | |
| Ephesians 1:2, 6, 7, 2:5, 7, 8, 3:2, 7, 8, 4:7, 29, 6:24 | 12x | |
| Philippians 1:2, 7, 4:23 | 3x | |
| Colossians 1:2, 6, 3:16, 4:6, 18 | 5x | |
| 1 Thessalonians 1:1, 5:28 | 2x | |
| 2 Thessalonians 1:2, 12, 2:16, 3:18 | 4x | |
| 1 Timothy 1:2, 12, 14, 6:21 | 4x | |
| 2 Timothy 1:2, 3, 9, 2:1, 4:22 | 5x | |
| Titus 1:4, 2:11, 3:7, 15 | 4x | |
| Philemon 1:3, 25 | 2x | |
| Hebrews | Hebrews 2:9, 4:16, 10:29, 12:15, 12:28, 13:9, 25 | 8x |
| James | James 4:6 | 2x |
| Peter | 1 Peter 1:2, 10, 13, 2:19, 20, 3:7, 4:10, 5:5, 10, 12; 2 Peter 1.2, 3.18 | 12x |
| John | 2 John 1:3; Revelation 1.4, 22.21 | 3x |
| Jude | Jude 1:4 | 1x |
These statistics are remarkable. Paul used the term χάρις 101 times (109 times) if we include Hebrews out of a total usage of 156 times in the New Testament. Matthew and Mark do not include the word χάρις once. And John only used it 4x. Luke used the term 8x in his gospel and 19 times in Acts. Why the heavy use in Luke and not the other gospels? The answer is because Luke was a constant companion of Paul and was influenced by Paul’s thinking and vocabulary. Thus, χάρις is used only 22 times (14%) in the New Testament in a non-Pauline association. As in the Old Testament, most of the usages of “grace” relate to the general favor of God or man. When we come to Paul, however, the meaning of “grace” assumes a greater dimension.
Paul’s Use of Grace (χάρις)
1. Paul used the word χάρις to emphasize God’s unmerited favor toward man particularly in respect to salvation. In the gospel of the grace of God salvation is obtained by faith apart from any works. It is faith + 0. One need only trust in the finished work of Christ (1 Corinthians 15.1-4). In addition and concomitant the gospel of grace, the Lord also revealed to Paul that believers of Paul’s gospel were not under the dominion of the Mosaic Law. The Law was over and Christians were under grace (Romans 6.14 cf. Galatians 1.6-7, 2.16, 3.11, 24-26, 4.30-31, 5.1, 18). Paul’s specialized usage of the word in this way made his usage of the word technical and unique. For Paul, grace was the realm in which salvation of faith without works or faith + 0 operated. We do not find such language or usage by anyone else.
2. Grace was such an essential concept of Paul’s thinking that he began all his letters with a grace statement as a greeting and ended all his letters with a grace farewell. It was his identifying escutcheon.
| Greeting | Farewell |
| Romans 1.7 | Romans 16.20, 24 |
| 1 Corinthians 1.3-4 | 1 Corinthians 16.23 |
| 2 Corinthians 1.2 | 2 Corinthians 12.14 |
| Galatians 1.3 | Galatians 6.18 |
| Ephesians 1.2 | Ephesians 6.24 |
| Philippians 1.2 | Philippians 4.23 |
| Colossians 1.2 | Colossians 4.18 |
| 1 Thessalonians 1.1 | 1 Thessalonians 5.28 |
| 2 Thessalonians 1.2 | 2 Thessalonians 3.18 |
| 1 Timothy 1.2 | 1 Timothy 6.21 |
| 2 Timothy 1.2 | 2 Timothy 4.22 |
| Titus 1.4 | Titus 3.15 |
| Philemon 1.3 | Philemon 1.25 |
3. Paul used χάρις as the term to identify and embrace his unique ministry (Romans 1.5, 15.15; 1 Corinthians 3.10, 15.10; Galatians 1.15, 2.9; Ephesians 3.2, 7-8; 1 Timothy 1.11) which he received from the risen, ascended Lord to be the apostle of the Gentiles (Romans 11.13) for the gospel of the grace of God (Acts 20.24). Paul made it clear that his ministry was completely different from the ministry of the Twelve. He, like an architect, had laid a new foundation (1 Corinthians 3.10) and declared he was the first (πρῶτος, i.e., the prototype) and the pattern (ὑποτύπωσις) of a new message and ministry (1 Timothy 1.15-16). Paul’s technical term for the revelations the risen Lord gave to him alone was μυστήριον “secret.”
4. Lastly, Paul employed χάρις as a term of thanksgiving (1 Corinthians 10.30; 2 Corinthians 9.15; Colossians 3.16; 1 Timothy 1.12; 2 Timothy 1.3).
Conclusion
No other biblical writer used χάρις (grace) the way Paul did. If one understands how and why Paul used grace the way he did one will grasp the basic concepts of Paul’s unique ministry and the message of Christianity. Without such understanding, one will flounder with confusion concerning the fundamental concepts as salvation by faith alone, i.e., sola fides, that the believer is not under Law, the “secrets” revealed by the risen Lord to Paul, and Paul’s unique apostleship. If one understands how Paul used “grace” these concepts will come to light.
©2013 Don Samdahl. Anyone is free to reproduce this material and distribute it, but it may not be sold.
G’Day Don,
If the Gospel of Grace came to us via Paul what does “And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace. For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. (John 1:16, 17 NKJV)” mean?
Ron G
Ron,
John’s audience was Jewish. He wrote that as Christ, God had revealed Himself to Israel in a way never before seen. Grace and truth did come through Christ but throughout His ministry He operated under the Law of Moses. He declared He came to fulfill it (Matthew 5.17). God had always operated in grace but His greatest manifestation was in Christ becoming man, going to the cross, and rising from the dead. But the gospel Jesus preached was a gospel under the Mosaic Law. Paul’s gospel was pure grace. No works were required for salvation. It was faith + 0. This was untrue of the gospel of the kingdom. It required faith + works. Also, God under Paul’s gospel was dealt with Gentiles directly. Jesus did not do this in His earthly ministry. This is why Paul was the Apostle of the grace of God.
Hi Don, can you explain/define “dispensation” to me as far as how Paul used it? I have absolutely no doubt that Paul only was entrusted with the dispensation of the grace of God. I have read Strong’s definition and I just need more clarity on the use of the word itself. Thanks so much.
Becky,
A dispensation is a period of time during which God deals with mankind according to certain rules. I deal with this in my article, Framework of Scripture.
Framework of Scripture was extremely helpful. thanks again!
For years, I heard people using the word “grace” but it always seemed to be used interchangeably with “mercy.” And the definition I received time and time again when asking about what it meant was “unmerited favor.” But for myself, as much as Paul spoke of grace, “unmerited favor” seemed more like a one-time thing instead of something actively ongoing on a daily basis. Then one day I thought to look it up in Strong’s and my eyes were opened to the full meaning of grace.
Strong’s – From G5463; graciousness (as gratifying), of manner or act (abstract or concrete; literal, figurative or spiritual; especially the divine influence upon the heart, and its reflection in the life; including gratitude): – acceptable, benefit, favour, gift, grace (-ious), joy liberality, pleasure, thank (-s, -worthy).
What jumped out at me was “especially the divine influence upon the heart, and its reflection in the life.” The first place I went was 2 Cor 12:9 and substituted “grace” with this definition, reading it aloud to myself: “My divine influence upon your heart and its reflection in your life is sufficient for you.” It immediately became a reality. It works in almost every instance in the New Testament. I have yet to hear anyone point this out or expound on it; it truly transformed my intimacy with the Lord and made me more aware of the Holy Spirit’s indwelling. I greatly appreciate your statements of Paul’s specialized usage of the word “grace” and that grace was such an essential concept to Paul. Just a great and insightful study, thank you!
I am trying to figure out my charismatic friends.Is it possible the reason they are so hung up on sign gifts is that it allows them to think they can receive God’s grace through works.
Todd,
It varies with the individual. The primary cause is misunderstanding or misinterpreting Scripture. Too many think that since God doesn’t change this means His operations among men do not change. People think sign gifts are the proofs of God’s power we should be experiencing today and they wish to witness God “doing something.” The cure for this is faith. Paul wrote the power of God in the Church is the gospel and the resurrection, not sign gifts (Romans 1.4, 16-17).
Hello bro Don, hope your doing well. I have a question for you regarding grace. Paul says : Romans 11:6 indicates to me that grace and works are not compatible with eacother but how can this be when in the ot grace was given To people based on covenants and required works. They had grace based on their works, so grace stood hand in hand with works in order to be perfect, in paul’s gospel grace stands alone, not even touching hands with works, is Paul forgetting the nt covenant given by Jesus to the messianic church, Jesus came full of grace and truth Jn 1:17 to the little flock, but this grace had conditions! What is your view on this, thanks !
George,
God has been gracious to mankind from the beginning. The primary thing that changed with Paul was God’s revelation that believers today are under the administration of grace. Israel was under the administration of Law from the time of Moses. The covenants were gracious blessings and Israel enjoyed blessing when it obeyed. We too, while under grace, enjoy blessing when we obey God. See my article, Paul and the Law.
Your article is so explanatory. I just have one question. Could you please tell me what is the ‘dictionary’ meaning of the word technical in your title? Thanks
Chin,
Thank you. A word that has a specific meaning within a specific field of expertise.
Hey Don in past I have seen where you have said that Paul little interaction with the twelve but here you say Luke was a companion of Paul jus trying to make sense of it all
Brandenn,
Luke was not one of the 12.
Don, have you heard of the hyper-grace teaching? If so, what are your thoughts about it?
Craig,
No, don’t know what is meant by this.
“During a British conference on comparative religions, experts from around the world debated what, if any, belief was unique to the Christian faith. They began eliminating possibilities. Incarnation? Other religions had different versions of god’s appearing in human form. Resurrection? Again, other religions had accounts of return from death. The debate went on for sometime until C.S. Lewis wandered into the room. “What’s the rumpus about?” He asked, and heard in reply that his colleagues were discussing Christianity’s unique contribution among world religions. Lewis responded, “Oh, that’s easy. It’s grace.” (Philip Yancey, ‘What’s So Amazing About Grace?’, pg. 45)
Don, a Christian friend told me that when we sin we do not need to confess it to God because we have been completely forgiven. I think we should confess because otherwise it could delay blessings, hurt our walk with God and hinder Him from answering our prayers. Which is correct? Are there any scriptures for support?
Craig,
Paul doesn’t use that language; he tells us to repent. Obviously, confession, acknowledgement of sin is implied in order to repent.
Don, do you think it is important to make the distinction that Gentiles were never under the Law? Should the argument be that ‘we are not and never were under the law’ instead of ‘the law is over and does not apply’? (Acts 15:10)
The fully finished work of Christ still applies because all mankind is sinful (original sin). Since we are apart from the Law, we are not justified under the law or by “works”, faith in Jesus is the only option.
Phil,
God gave the Mosaic Law to Israel as its administrative body. The moral law of the Mosaic Law condemned both Jews and Gentiles (Romans 3.19). The moral law still condemns—that is its job. This is what must be understood. For Israel, keeping the Law was part of their salvation. But it is not for us. We are saved by faith + 0, which Israel never was. So they are two separate issues.
Thank you, Don,
I am not trying to be obstinate.
The Law is a reflection of God’s perfect, infallible character (Psalm 19:7; James 1:25), it is God’s truth; but at the same time, it seems the Law was a construct, a partial revelation by God, but “it” is not God, and “it” became a false god/idol for Pharisees and the self-righteous and Jesus rebuked them because they were not seeing God in the law’s reflection. Jesus did not come to change the Law but to fulfill it (Matthew 5:17).
Galatians 3:24-25 “So the law was our guardian until Christ came that we might be justified by faith. Now that this faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian.” The “moral law” condemns in the sense we are all sinners but it applies to Israel only? Your reference to Romans 3:19 refers to those under the Law, not Gentiles?
I totally respect your teaching/insight with doctrine.org but I am just trying to understand better. (I just started to read your book “Paul – Apostle of Secrets”).
Phil,
See my article, Paul and the Law. God gave the Law to Israel alone. But when Gentiles can in contact with it, the moral part of the Law, it condemned them too.
Don, it took me a while but I read Paul and the Law and now understand the “moral law” and that it is now under the administration of Grace through the Holy Spirit. Thank you!
Phil,
Great! Thank you.
Good evening,
I just finished preaching a message on
The Kingdom of God. What I am seeing throughout evangelical churches is that
We are not under the Law of the Works.
However we are still under the commandments. Paul clarifies this In
1st Corinthians 6:19, Circumcision does not
matter and uncircumcision does not matter
But keeping the commandments is what matters. We are still under the commandments not under the Levitical Law of sacrifice. It is Heresy to teach other wise.
You can not interpret the writings of Paul without looking at the Gospel if the Kingdom. The Gospel that Paul referred to in Galatians was the Gospel of the Kingdom. The Pauline nor Petrine epistles or other books outside of the gospel of the Kingdom are included in this comment by Paul. Peter warns us in 2 nd Peter about twisting and the difficulty of comprehending
Paul’s epistles. The Parable of the Goats and Sheep is the perfect example of how all Christians will be judged. I think I would listen to the one that is going to judge us.
Christ himself. Not taking the out of context
Injections by a very disturbed Luther who was a horrible antisemite and said it ok to fornicate all day and murder 1000 people
Your are covered by the grace. I will quote Paul in Romans, “God forbid”!!
Jason,
Peter set aside the gospel of the kingdom in Acts 15.11. See my article, The Great Hinge. The 12 had no understanding of Paul’s gospel. That is why Paul called it a secret (Ephesians 6.19; Romans 16.25). The faith component of gospel of the kingdom was to believe that Jesus was the Christ, the Son of God. No one is saved by believing that today. The gospel of the kingdom include works: keeping the Mosaic Law, forgiving one another, water baptism. Today, one is only saved by believing Paul’s gospel, that Christ died for our sins, was buried, and rose from the dead (1 Corinthians 15.1-4). Paul’s gospel is believe only. It has no works. Paul taught that we keep the moral law through faith and under the governance of the Holy Spirit.
If you are teaching commandment keeping then you need to make sure you are keeping all of them all the time, including keeping the Sabbath. But, NO ONE can do it and this is why God gave us grace. Paul never taught the gospel of the kingdom, but the gospel of the grace of God. He was not an extension of the Twelve, but the apostle to the Gentiles. So much confusion in Christendom today.
Living in human flesh “without sin” requires that you redefine “sin.” This is the very thing that Jesus condemned the Pharisees for doing. You may be able to obey some watered down version of the 10 commandments, but if you think you are keeping them as per Jesus’ definition, you’re not. That’s why we need a savior. The lost revel in their sin. The saved are repulsed by their sin.
“Oh wretched man that I am! Who will deliver me from this body of death?”
It has been done (past tense) through Jesus Christ our Lord. While this may (and should) improve our performance, our flesh will never be righteous. Jesus didn’t come to clean it up, he came to kill it. Paul is admonishing us to let that which is dead be dead.
Man! I love that. Amen. “He came to kill it”.
Col.3:1 ¶If ye then be risen with Christ, seek those things which are above, where Christ sitteth on the right hand of God.
2 Set your affection on things above, not on things on the earth.
3 For ye are dead, and your life is hid with Christ in God.
Praise the Lord!
How is James 4:6 “…but He gives greater grace…” different than how Paul used the word grace?
Melissa,
James is writing to Jews who had believed the gospel of the kingdom (James 1.1), not to the Church, the body of Christ. James’ emphasis is on works, where Paul’s is on faith. The biggest difference is that when Paul writes about faith, it is a present possession and condition, e.g., Romans 6.14. When James writes about it is something God will give to the humble. This is wholly different from Paul for he places no conditions on it. We, members of the Church, the body of Christ, have received grace and live in that condition. For James, grace is something which can be received by the humble.
Thank you for your quick reply. If I may, how is Paul using “grace” in 2 Cor. 4:15? “Indeed, everything is for your benefit so that, as grace extends through more and more people, it may cause thanksgiving to increase to the glory of God.
Melissa,
I would translate the passage something like, “For all things are for your sakes, so that the grace which spread, might increase (or abound) through the thanksgiving of many for the glory of the God.”
τὰ γὰρ πάντα δι᾽ ὑμᾶς ἵνα ἡ χάρις πλεονάσασα διὰ τῶν πλειόνων τὴν εὐχαριστίαν περισσεύσῃ εἰς τὴν δόξαν τοῦ θεοῦ
Essentially, Paul is writing that God’s grace, through his gospel, has spread with the result that many are thankful and this is for God’s glory.
Then, is grace, according to Paul’s application, synonymous with salvation, rather than favor, or help, etc? (this will be my last comment so as not to become annoying :)
Melissa,
The answer requires a bit of explanation. Take, for example, Ephesians 2.8, which has been poorly rendered in almost all translations. The Greek text read, τῇ γὰρ χάριτί ἐστε σεσῳσμένοι διὰ τῆς πίστεως καὶ τοῦτο οὐκ ἐξ ὑμῶν θεοῦ τὸ δῶρον. Literally, it reads, “for by the grace are you having been saved through the faith. And this is not of yourselves. It is the gift of God.” What translations leave out is the little word “the.” When Paul wrote “the grace” or “the faith” he meant the revelations and the gospel he had received from the risen Christ—the things which were new and particular to his ministry. Greek has no indefinite article. It only has the definite article. When the definite article is present it identifies the noun and makes it definite. A vast difference exists between “faith” and “the faith.” If one only sees the former, one wonders whether the act of believing is meant or what is believed. When the definite article is present, it removes all doubt. It is what is believed, the content of faith. So, “the faith” is Paul gospel or Paul’s doctrines. “The grace” is that grace that Christ revealed to Paul by the His revelations. Just one more technical point. A noun may be definite even if the definite article is not present. To determine this requires examining the context of the passage.
I’m sending this via my phone for the first time so I am not sure if it will be sent properly. Please let me know that you got this or send me an email if you prefer not to post it.
Taking the “the” out of Ephesians 2:8 almost seems like a smoking gun in a deliberate cover up of the gospel of grace.
My Interlinear translation does not even include “the.”
A Strongs online greek-linked site makes it appear that τῇ and τῆς are not in the original text.
What are the excuses of translators for leaving “the” out? Are there legitimate occasions to ever exclude a definite article.? I’m having a hard time believing that all the people who read Greek would look at this passage and, on purpose, not put in those articles.
Thx.
Neill,
There’s nothing nefarious going on. Sometimes the translators are just doing a poor job. Having said that, however, sometimes one of they leave out “the” because they fail to recognize Paul’s unique apostleship. For example, when Paul wrote “the faith,” he meant the gospel or doctrine he received from the risen Lord. But because most think Paul and Peter preached the same gospel and taught the same doctrine they see no need to identify “the faith” as anything unique to Paul. When he wrote “the grace,” he meant that particular grace we now enjoy as members of the Church, the body of Christ. There are legitimate reasons to leave out “the,” e.g., place names—“the Galilee,” or personal names—“the Paul,” “the Jesus.” You can keep it in but it sounds awkward. And, since place and personal names are specific and definite, keeping “the” is redundant.
Actually it’s really not a translation issue with πίστεως, per se, but rather textual.
Stephanus’ Greek text of 1550 includes the definite article with “faith” (διὰ τῆς πίστεως). Critical texts such as Westcott-Hort, omit the article (διὰ πίστεως).
Both majority and critical texts, however do record the definite article with “grace” (τῇ γὰρ χάριτί), which most translations omit.
PajamaGuru,
The main point is Paul included the definite article, “the faith,” “the grace,” to emphasize or identify that particular faith or grace which he proclaimed. “Faith” can mean “what is believed,” “the act of believing,” or “faithfulness.” When Paul included the article he meant “what is believed,” in particular, to denote his gospel. Thus, he wrote, Πρὸ τοῦ δὲ ἐλθεῖν τὴν πίστιν, in which “the faith,” was his gospel (cf. Galatians 3.25, 26). Romans 3.30 shows a massive distinction between Israel’s salvation and Paul’s gospel. I develop this in detail in my book on Paul. Unfortunately, almost all translations omit translating the definite article, a grave error.
Don,
Just a little note of thanks here. My wife and I were hot and heavy into the “Word of Faith” movement a bunch of years ago. The end result was making “faith” a work. We became more confused. We knew something wasn’t right but couldn’t put our finger on it at the time. Then the moment came. In your book “PAUL Apostle of Secrets” you hit the ball out of the park in Chapter 6, “Paul on Faith”. We had to read the chapter several times to set us free from past notions concerning (the) faith. Wow, how much difference the little word “the” can make! You can’t imagine how many teachers/pastors/authors ran with the “faith” movement (never mentioned or cared to address the pesky little definite article) and lead many into confusion and disappointment. Hope you don’t mind the little advertisement for your most recent book.
Michael,
Thank you for your kind words. It is for folks like you and your wife that I write. It is my joy that what was unclear is now clear to you. I was stunned when I first noticed how many translations omit the definite article. It is an egregious error because this is something one learns in first year Greek. But if you do not really understand Paul and his apostleship it slides by.
Don, in Acts 6:8 was Stephen full of faith or full of grace? Catholics say only Mary was full of grace. Can we say Stephen was also?
Craig,
Where do the Scriptures say Mary was full of faith or full of grace?
In the Latin vulgate Luke 1:28 says Hail, full of grace, instead of: highly favored.
Craig,
The Greek text is Χαῖρε κεχαριτωμένη ὁ κύριος μετὰ σοῦ εὐλογημένη σὺ ἐν γυναιξίν. Literally, it reads, Greetings, the one who has been favored; the Lord is with you, who has blessed you among women.
So would it be correct to say I place my faith in the faith?
Bren,
Technically, we trust in Christ, a person. But what we trust is what God has revealed. So, for us, when Paul wrote “the faith” it for shorthand for his gospel or his doctrines. Thus, we place our faith for salvation in the truth that Christ died for our sins and rose from the dead.
Hi Don.Blessings in abundance be yours in the name of the Risen Glorified Lord Jesus Amen
Would you or could Grace be considered as a covenant or an attribute or both particularly in relation to the Body Of Christ doctrine. It seems some consider Grace to be gods covenant to man. Your thoughts are greatly appreciated. Ron in Ireland.
Ron,
Reformed theologians, aka, covenant theologians, speak of a covenant of grace. This nomenclature is theological, not Biblical. In the broadest sense, God has established a covenant of grace, but this is no more than saying God deals with us in grace. The covenant theologians covenant of grace, covenant of works, and covenant of redemption are the vehicles they use to explain their theology. This system is fatally flawed and non-Biblical. The covenants the Bible reveals are the Noahic, Abrahamic, Mosaic, Sabbatic, Davidic, and New.
Above, was the Palestinian covenant left out or is it subsumed by one of the covenants mentioned?
Joe,
The Palestinian or Land covenant is included in the Abrahamic covenant.
Thanks your comments Don. Yes reformed theology swings that way so Grace could in the broadest sense be covenant promise
So could one see Grace more so as an attribute of God contained in his love rather than a covenant promise. Grace being the unmerited favor of God and measured out according to his will. Ron in Ireland.
Don:
President Abraham Lincoln carried a very small devotional book in his waistcoat pocket.
“The Believer’s Daily Treasure.” It was published by: The Religious Tract Society of London
in 1852. It contained 365 scripture verses together with a brief comment, one for each day
of the year. Below is an entry of special interest for Sept. 8th, on page 134:
:
8
Temptation to Legal Dependence
Are ye so foolish? having begun in the
Spirit, are ye now made perfect in the flesh?
Gal. iii.3.
Go, you that rest upon the Law
And toil and seek salvation there;
Look.to the flame that Moses saw
And shrink, and tremble, and despair.
But I’ll retire beneath thy cross –
Savior, at thy dear feet I’lll lie;
And the keen sword that justice draws,
Flaming and red, shall pass me by.
134
A wee bit of grace from mid-19th century England that is as timely as the day it was written!