Who Wrote Hebrews?

Introduction

Paul’s Letter to the Hebrews

The epistle of Hebrews was written to demonstrate to Jews that as great as the Mosaic Law was, as great as the Temple was, as great as the Levitical sacrifices were, Christ was superior (Hebrews 1.1-3, 4-2.18, 3.1-4.13, 4.14-10.18, 10.19-12.29). It revealed that Judaism based upon the Mosaic Law, Levitical sacrifices, etc. was over. Reality, in the person and work of Christ, replaced the shadows, symbols, and types of the Law and Prophets (Luke 24.25-32; Romans 15.4, 8). The Messiah had come and finished the work of salvation to which the Law and Prophets had pointed (John 19.30). Only through Him was salvation possible.

Authorship

A controversial but tantalizing question throughout church history has been the letter’s authorship. Several personages have been identified as possible authors. They include Barnabas, Apollos, Silas, Luke, James, Clement of Rome, Aquila, Priscilla, and Paul. For most of church history, Paul was the leading contender. But Paul has fallen into disfavor and modern scholarship has all but dismissed him as the book’s author.¹ Anyone but Paul has become de rigueur and chic among professional theologians. This study will examine and weigh the objections to and evidence for Pauline authorship of Hebrews.

Arguments Against Pauline Authorship

Five major objections exist to Pauline authorship:²

The letter is anonymous which is contrary to Paul’s practice in his other letters.
The writing style is dramatically better than Paul.
The logical development is much more tightly woven than is Paul’s.
Spiritual eyewitnesses are appealed to (Hebrews 2.3) while Paul insisted on no intermediaries for his gospel (Galatians 1.12).
Timothy’s imprisonment (Hebrews 13.23) does not seem to fit within Paul’s lifetime since he is mentioned in Acts and Paul’s letters as a free man.

Consideration of Pauline Objections

1. Anonymity

Paul’s practice was to identify himself by name in his letters and Hebrews does not contain Paul’s name. To whom did Paul write? His primary audience of his epistles was Gentiles as he was “the apostle of the Gentiles” (Romans 11.13). The audience of Hebrews was Jews. But throughout Acts, we read Paul went to Jews first and then turned to Gentiles when they rejected Christ (Acts 13, 18, 28). The Lord had revealed to Paul that the Jews would not receive his message (Acts 22.17-18). But Paul, because of his love for his people, continued to try and evangelize them. Despite the fact the Holy Spirit had revealed trouble awaited him in Jerusalem, he was determined to preach to them (Acts 20.22-23, 21.4, 10-13).

Paul had a strong personality. This is clear from the record of Acts and his letters. Despite Paul’s conversion, his personality did not change and God used his zeal for His purposes. Paul loved his nation and his people. He must have asked himself thousands of times how he could have been so blind. He knew the Law and the Prophets inside and out. He had been taught by one of the greatest of Israel’s rabbis. He had been recognized as a rising star among the Pharisees. Despite all this, he had failed miserably. That he had been unable to recognize the Messiah must have stunned him. How could he, with all his education, with all his brilliance, have missed the One to whom the whole Law and the prophets pointed? But God, in His matchless grace saved Paul. Paul was convinced that if he, who had been so blind, could be changed, his nation could also. With this motivation, he persisted in evangelizing Jews. But his personal experience confirmed the Lord’s words. They steadfastly rebuffed his message of salvation, even to the point of trying to kill him. Paul’s efforts resulted in his imprisonment in Rome, which is where he is at the end of Acts.³ Jewish opposition to Paul was a reasonable explanation for not identifying himself by name as the letter’s author. Such explanation was recognized by Eusebius (c. 263-339 A.D.) who gave the following account of Clement of Alexandria (c. 150-215 A.D.):

1. To sum up briefly, he has given in the Hypotyposes abridged accounts of all canonical Scripture, not omitting the disputed books,—I refer to Jude and the other Catholic epistles, and Barnabas and the so-called Apocalypse of Peter. 2. He says that the Epistle to the Hebrews is the work of Paul, and that it was written to the Hebrews in the Hebrew language; but that Luke translated it carefully and published it for the Greeks, and hence the same style of expression is found in this epistle and in the Acts. 3. But he says that the words, Paul the Apostle, were probably not prefixed, because, in sending it to the Hebrews, who were prejudiced and suspicious of him, he wisely did not wish to repel them at the very beginning by giving his name. 4. Farther on he says: But now, as the blessed presbyter said, since the Lord being the apostle of the Almighty, was sent to the Hebrews, Paul, as sent to the Gentiles, on account of his modesty did not subscribe himself an apostle of the Hebrews, through respect for the Lord, and because being a herald and apostle of the Gentiles he wrote to the Hebrews out of his superabundance (Eusebius, Church History 6.14.1-4).

Eta Linnemann responded to Donald Guthrie’s assertion that anonymity did not conform to Pauline style, stating: “The truth is, anonymity is not a question of style but of necessity. Whoever writes anonymously has grounds for so doing” (italics hers) and that no one who denies Hebrews to Paul has given a reason why other proposed authors wrote it anonymously.⁴Such analysis lends great weight to Pauline authorship. Who besides Paul would wish to remain anonymous?

2. Writing Style

Early in Church history scholars recognized the writing style of Hebrews was different from Paul’s epistles. Origen (c. 184-253 A.D.) wrote, “Whoever wrote the epistle, God only knows for sure.” Opponents of Pauline authorship use Origen’s statement to support their case. Removed from its context, the statement is a half-truth. Eusebius preserved Origen’s complete statement which reads as follows:

11. In addition he makes the following statements in regard to the Epistle to the Hebrews in his Homilies upon it: That the verbal style of the epistle entitled ‘To the Hebrews,’ is not rude like the language of the apostle, who acknowledged himself ‘rude in speech’ (2 Corinthians 11:6) that is, in expression; but that its diction is purer Greek, any one who has the power to discern differences of phraseology will acknowledge. 12. Moreover, that the thoughts of the epistle are admirable, and not inferior to the acknowledged apostolic writings, any one who carefully examines the apostolic text will admit.’ 13. Farther on he adds: If I gave my opinion, I should say that the thoughts are those of the apostle, but the diction and phraseology are those of some one who remembered the apostolic teachings, and wrote down at his leisure what had been said by his teacher. Therefore if any church holds that this epistle is by Paul, let it be commended for this. For not without reason have the ancients handed it down as Paul’s. 14. But who wrote the epistle, in truth, God knows. The statement of some who have gone before us is that Clement, bishop of the Romans, wrote the epistle, and of others that Luke, the author of the Gospel and the Acts, wrote it. But let this suffice on these matters. (Eusebius, Church History, 6.25.11-14).

These words indicate Origen believed Paul authored Hebrews but was composed by another. The nature of Origen’s doubt was style and composition, not substance. Origen consistently ascribed authorship to Paul in his writings, e.g., De Principiis, Against Celsus, To Africanus.⁵

Eusebius himself wrote:

Paul’s fourteen epistles are well known and undisputed. It is not indeed right to overlook the fact that some have rejected the Epistle to the Hebrews, saying that it is disputed by the church of Rome, on the ground that it was not written by Paul. But what has been said concerning this epistle by those who lived before our time I shall quote in the proper place. In regard to the so-called Acts of Paul, I have not found them among the undisputed writings. (Eusebius, Church History 3.3.5)
For as Paul had addressed the Hebrews in the language of his country; some say that the evangelist Luke, others that Clement, translated the epistle. (Eusebius, Church History 3.38.2-3)

Paul’s letters of Romans to Philemon number thirteen. Hebrews makes fourteen. Could Luke have collaborated with Paul in writing Hebrews? It is reasonable since he was Paul’s constant traveling companion, was familiar with Paul’s messages to the Jews (serving as Paul’s personal historian as well as his personal physician), was Jewish, and was with Paul during his imprisonment in Rome. David L. Allen recently argued for Lukan authorship of Hebrews, and Dave Black has argued Luke was Paul’s penman, as have Andrew W. Pitts and Joshua F. Walker.⁶

3. Logical Development

The objection that “the logical development is much more tightly woven than is Paul’s” is an interesting one. The primary issues of any writing involve purpose and audience. Paul’s letters of Romans through Philemon addressed Christian (mostly Gentile) congregations to instruct, encourage, and correct. Hebrews addresses Jews, who may or may not have been believers, to demonstrate the choice before them was now Christ or nothing. The fulfillment of the Mosaic Law had come in the person of the Messiah and the administration of the Law was over.

Perhaps the greatest question for those who make this objection is whether they think Romans is inferior in logical development to Hebrews and a corollary question is whether they think Paul could not construct a tightly woven logical argument. Paul had been taught and trained by the greatest rabbi of his day, Gamaliel. He had been a star student. He had reasoned with and preached to Jews throughout his ministry. Acts ends with Paul’s meeting with the Jewish leaders in Rome, which occurred only a few days after he arrived. Luke recorded he “was explaining to them by solemnly testifying about the kingdom of God and trying to persuade them concerning Jesus, from both the Law of Moses and from the Prophets, from morning until evening (Acts 28.23).” Paul had a great deal of time to construct, develop, and practice his arguments (cf. Acts 13.14-43, 18.4-6). Is not Luke’s record of Paul’s words to the Jews in Pisidia Antioch, Corinth, and Rome the argument of Hebrews?

Consider the following passages from Acts:

“Men of Israel, and you who fear God, listen: ¹⁷ The God of this people Israel chose our fathers and made the people great during their stay in the land of Egypt, and with an uplifted arm He led them out from it. ¹⁸ For a period of about forty years He put up with them in the wilderness. ¹⁹ When He had destroyed seven nations in the land of Canaan, He distributed their land as an inheritance—all of which took about four hundred and fifty years. ²⁰After these things He gave them judges until Samuel the prophet. ²¹ Then they asked for a king, and God gave them Saul the son of Kish, a man of the tribe of Benjamin, for forty years. ²² After He had removed him, He raised up David to be their king, concerning whom He also testified and said, ‘I have found David the son of Jesse, a man after My heart, who will do all My will.’ ²³ From the descendants of this man, according to promise, God has brought to Israel a Savior, Jesus, ²⁴ after John had proclaimed before His coming a baptism of repentance to all the people of Israel. ²⁵ And while John was completing his course, he kept saying, ‘What do you suppose that I am? I am not He. But behold, one is coming after me the sandals of whose feet I am not worthy to untie.’ ²⁶ “Brethren, sons of Abraham’s family, and those among you who fear God, to us the message of this salvation has been sent. ²⁷ For those who live in Jerusalem, and their rulers, recognizing neither Him nor the utterances of the prophets which are read every Sabbath, fulfilled these by condemning Him. ²⁸ And though they found no ground for putting Him to death, they asked Pilate that He be executed. ²⁹ When they had carried out all that was written concerning Him, they took Him down from the cross and laid Him in a tomb. ³⁰ But God raised Him from the dead; ³¹ and for many days He appeared to those who came up with Him from Galilee to Jerusalem, the very ones who are now His witnesses to the people. ³² And we preach to you the good news of the promise made to the fathers, ³³ that God has fulfilled this promise to our children in that He raised up Jesus, as it is also written in the second Psalm, ‘You are My Son; today I have begotten You.’ ³⁴As for the fact that He raised Him up from the dead, no longer to return to decay, He has spoken in this way: ‘I will give you the holy and sure blessings of David.’ ³⁵ Therefore He also says in another Psalm, ‘You will not allow Your Holy One to undergo decay.’ ³⁶ For David, after he had served the purpose of God in his own generation, fell asleep, and was laid among his fathers and underwent decay; ³⁷ but He whom God raised did not undergo decay. ³⁸ Therefore let it be known to you, brethren, that through Him forgiveness of sins is proclaimed to you, ³⁹ and through Him everyone who believes is freed from all things, from which you could not be freed through the Law of Moses. ⁴⁰ Therefore take heed, so that the thing spoken of in the Prophets may not come upon you: ⁴¹ ‘Behold, you scoffers, and marvel, and perish; for I am accomplishing a work in your days, a work which you will never believe, though someone should describe it to you.’” ⁴² As Paul and Barnabas were going out, the people kept begging that these things might be spoken to them the next Sabbath. ⁴³ Now when the meeting of the synagogue had broken up, many of the Jews and of the God-fearing proselytes followed Paul and Barnabas, who, speaking to them, were urging them to continue in the grace of God (Acts 13.16-43).

In the passage above, Paul addressed the Jews in Antioch Pisidia in the synagogue on the Sabbath. Was this a tightly woven logical argument? Particular attention should be paid to verses 38-41. Again, is this not the argument of Hebrews?

Luke, Paul’s doctor, companion, and fellow-prisoner, recorded Paul’s interaction with the Jews immediately following his arrival in Rome in Acts 28.23-27:

²³ When they had set a day for Paul, they came to him at his lodging in large numbers; and he was explaining to them by solemnly testifying about the kingdom of God and trying to persuade them concerning Jesus, from both the Law of Moses and from the Prophets, from morning until evening. ²⁴ Some were being persuaded by the things spoken, but others would not believe. ²⁵ And when they did not agree with one another, they began leaving after Paul had spoken one parting word, “The Holy Spirit rightly spoke through Isaiah the prophet to your fathers, ²⁶ saying, ‘Go to this people and say, “You will keep on hearing, but will not understand; And you will keep on seeing, but will not perceive; ²⁷ For the heart of this people has become dull, and with their ears they scarcely hear, and they have closed their eyes; otherwise they might see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart and return, and I would heal them.”’

The burden of proof of this objection rests upon those who reject Pauline authorship. In order for the objection to be valid, opponents of Pauline authorship must demonstrate at least two things: 1) Romans is inferior in logical development to Hebrews, and 2) Paul could not form a tightly woven logical argument in light of the arguments he made in Acts to the Jews. Good luck.

4. Spiritual Eyewitnesses

Another major argument against Pauline authorship has been Hebrews 2.3. The passage reads:

¹For this reason we must pay much closer attention to what we have heard, so that we do not drift away from it. ²For if the word spoken through angels proved unalterable, and every transgression and disobedience received a just penalty, ³how will we escape if we neglect so great a salvation? After it was at the first spoken through the Lord, it was confirmed to us by those who heard, ⁴God also testifying with them, both by signs and wonders and by various miracles and by gifts of the Holy Spirit according to His own will (Hebrews 2.1-4).

Those who make the argument maintain the passage means the writer claimed he learned the gospel from those who heard Jesus directly and this is contrary to Paul’s statement of having received the gospel directly from the ascended Lord (Galatians 1.11-12; cf. Ephesians 3.3). For example, Paul Ellingworth in his The Epistle to the Hebrews: A Commentary on the Greek Text wrote:

The single most striking piece of internal evidence against Pauline authorship of Hebrews is the author’s explicit statement that the message which began with Jesus ὑπὸ τῶν ἀκουσάντων εἰς ἡμᾶς ἐβεβαιώθη (2:3); in other words, that the author and his readers received the gospel indirectly.⁷

Is this what the text reads? My intent is not to exegete the passage but to make two points:

The first point is the passage states the message of salvation “was confirmed to us by those who heard” (ὑπὸ τῶν ἀκουσάντων εἰς ἡμᾶς ἐβεβαιώθη). Presumably, “those who heard” referred to the Twelve and/or those who witnessed Jesus’ earthly ministry. The “us” is not Paul but the Jews. This is clear both from the context of the entire passage as well as from the first part of the verse: “How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation?” Again, the “we” are Jews. This is also clear from Hebrews 4.2. The “us” are Jews. Thus, the sense of the verse is: “After it was at the first spoken through the Lord, it was confirmed to us [Jews] by those who heard, God also testifying with them, both by signs and wonders and by various miracles and by gifts of the Holy Spirit according to His own will.” The word βεβαιόω means “confirmed.” It does not mean “learned” or “received.” How anyone derives learned or received from βεβαιόω is incomprehensible. The word βεβαιόω is used 8x in the New Testament (Mark 16.20; Romans 15.8, 1 Corinthians 1.6, 8; 2 Corinthians 1.21; Colossians 2.7; Hebrews 2.3, 13.9). Note the passages where it is found and specifically who used the term.
The second point is that those who make this objection assume the message of salvation of the Twelve was the same message of salvation of Paul. Such a view has no Scriptural support. The Twelve preached the “gospel of the kingdom.” Salvation according to the gospel of the kingdom was faith in the identity of Christ (John 3.18; Acts 2.21, 38, 3.6, 16, 4.7, 10, 12, 17-18, 30, 5.28, 40-41), who He was (Matthew 16.15-17; John 11.25-27; Acts 8.37), the Messiah, the Son of God. Paul did not preach the gospel of the kingdom after he returned from Arabia. He preached the “gospel of the grace of God.” Paul’s gospel was based, not upon the identity of Christ, but upon the work of Christ: that He died for our sins and rose from the dead (1 Corinthians 15.1-4). These were two different gospels. Both were valid from the time Paul received his gospel (Galatians 1.12), presumably during his three years in Arabia and Damascus, until the Jerusalem Council, in 51 A.D. At the end of that Council, only one gospel remained: Paul’s gospel (Acts 15.11, cf. Galatians 1.7-9).⁸

5. Timothy’s Imprisonment

Hebrews 13.22-24, reads:

²² But I urge you, brethren, bear with this word of exhortation, for I have written to you briefly. ²³ Take notice that our brother Timothy has been released, with whom, if he comes soon, I will see you. ²⁴ Greet all of your leaders and all the saints. Those from Italy greet you.

This objection to Pauline authorship is the claim that no record exists of Timothy being in prison from Acts or Paul’s epistles. Therefore, it is reasoned, the writer was not Paul.

Paul’s letters reveal others were confined with him in Rome. Aristarchus and Epaphras were with him (Colossians 4.10; Philemon 1.23) as was Luke (Colossians 4.14; Philemon 1.24). Evidently, Timothy was also (Colossians 1.1; Philemon 1.1; Philippians 1.1, 2.19). From Philippians 2.19-24, we can conclude Timothy was released before Paul. Thus, the statement, “Know that our brother Timothy has been set free, with whom I shall see you if he comes shortly” (Hebrews 13.23) confirms the Philippian passage.

Additional Arguments For Pauline Authorship

1. Peter’s Support of Pauline Authorship

Peter wrote the following shortly before his death:

¹⁴ Therefore, beloved, since you look for these things, be diligent to be found by Him in peace, spotless and blameless, ¹⁵ and regard the patience of our Lord as salvation; just as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given him, wrote to you, ¹⁶ as also in all his letters, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which the untaught and unstable distort, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures, to their own destruction (2 Peter 3.14-16).

Peter’s ministered to Jews, not Gentiles (Acts 2.22, 36, 3. 12, 25; Galatians 2.7-9; 1 Peter 1.1) while Paul’s ministry was primarily to Gentiles (Romans 11.13; Galatians 2.7-9). In the passage above, Peter wrote Jewish believers about Paul’s having written to them. What letter did Paul write to Jews? Two possibilities exist: 1) An unknown, lost letter, or 2) Hebrews.

Peter seems to have had access to Paul’s writings even though he had little contact with him. He confessed he found some of Paul’s teachings difficult. These teachings were Paul’s secrets (μυστήριον, Romans 11.25, 16.25; 1 Corinthians 2.7, 4.1, 13.2, 14.2, 15.51; Ephesians 1.9, 3.3-4, 9, 5.32, 6.19; Colossians 1.26-27, 2.2, 4.3; 2 Thessalonians 2.7; 1 Timothy 3.9, 16).⁹ Paul’s secrets included his doctrine of the Church as the “body of Christ,” the Rapture, the significance of the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ, the believer’s heavenly citizenship, the temporary blinding of Israel, and salvation by faith alone. Jesus had taught none of these things in His earthly ministry. Nor had He revealed them to the Twelve. These unknown truths, these secrets, He revealed to Paul alone.

Another important point of this passage is that by the time Peter wrote 2 Peter, i.e., 68 A.D., Paul’s letters were recognized as Scripture. Peter’s statement, “as they do also the rest of the Scriptures” (ὡς καὶ τὰς λοιπὰς γραφὰς) recognized Paul’s writings had the same God-breathed (θεόπνευστος) authority as the Old Testament scriptures.¹⁰

Paul wrote the following to the Colossians:

Colossians 1.24-27

²⁴ Νῦν χαίρω ἐν τοῖς παθήμασιν ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν, καὶ ἀνταναπληρῶ τὰ ὑστερήματα τῶν θλίψεων τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ σαρκί μου ὑπὲρ τοῦ σώματος αὐτοῦ, ὅ ἐστιν ἡ ἐκκλησία, ²⁵ ἧς ἐγενόμην ἐγὼ διάκονος κατὰ τὴν οἰκονομίαν τοῦ θεοῦ τὴν δοθεῖσάν μοι εἰς ὑμᾶς πληρῶσαι τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ, ²⁶ τὸ μυστήριον τὸ ἀποκεκρυμμένον ἀπὸ τῶν αἰώνων καὶ ἀπὸ τῶν γενεῶν νῦν δὲ ἐφανερώθη τοῖς ἁγίοις αὐτοῦ, ²⁷ οἷς ἠθέλησεν ὁ θεὸς γνωρίσαι τί τὸ πλοῦτος τῆς δόξης τοῦ μυστηρίου τούτου ἐν τοῖς ἔθνεσιν, ὅς ἐστιν Χριστὸς ἐν ὑμῖν, ἡ ἐλπὶς τῆς δόξης,

²⁴ Now, I rejoice in sufferings for you, and I fill up that which is behind of the afflictions of Christ in my flesh, for His body, which is the Church; ²⁵ of which I became minister, according to the administration of God given to me for you to complete the word of God, ²⁶ the secret having been hidden from ages and from generations, but now has been made manifest to His saints; ²⁷ to whom God willed to make known what [is] the wealth of the glory of this secret among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you the hope of glory:

In verse 25, Paul wrote God had given him the task of completing the Word of God (πληρῶσαι τὸν λόγον τοῦ θεοῦ). Its completion included the Lord’s revelation of teachings He had kept secret, which included the indwelling Christ in believers. Since Paul’s writings completed the Scriptures, it means John’s writings were written before Paul’s and that Paul had the last word from God to the human race. Peter, in concert with Paul, recognized Paul’s letters completed the canon. Thus, the canon of Scripture was completed with 2 Timothy, about 68 A.D.

Lastly, particularly in light of Peter’s recognition that Paul’s letters completed the Word of God, he directed Jewish believers to heed Paul. At the end of his life, he did not refer them to James, John, Jude, or the gospels. He told them to heed Paul. Such direction would make sense only if Paul wrote Hebrews and that Peter recognized Paul’s writings completed the Scriptures.

2. Salutation

Paul wrote the following words to the Thessalonians:

¹⁷ I, Paul, write this greeting with my own hand, and this is a distinguishing mark in every letter; this is the way I write. ¹⁸ The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all (2 Thessalonians 3.17-18).

Paul wrote the above because the Thessalonians had received a letter purportedly from him that the Day of the Lord (the Tribulation) had come (2 Thessalonians 2.1-2). This upset them because Paul had taught them previously that Christ would deliver them, i.e., remove them from the earth before this event (1 Thessalonians 1.9-10, 4.13-18, 5.9-11). To foil further forgeries, Paul included a “grace” statement at the beginning and end of his letters written by his own hand. Paul normally dictated his letters but he included his “grace” statements as a sample of his handwriting for a “sign” or “token” (σημεῖον) of his authorship (cf. 1 Corinthians 16.21; Colossians 4.18).

Paul’s Epistles: Grace Salutations
Romans 1.7, 16.20, 24	Philippians 1.2, 4.23	2 Timothy 1.2, 4.22
1 Corinthians 1.3, 16.23	Colossians 1.2, 4.18	Titus 1.4, 3.15
2 Corinthians 1.2, 13.14	1 Thessalonians 1.1, 5.28	Philemon 1.3, 1.25
Galatians 1.13, 6.18	2 Thessalonians 1.2, 3.18	and
Ephesians 1.2, 6.24	1 Timothy 1.2, 6.21	Hebrews 13.25

For our purposes, what is notable is that Paul’s “grace” greeting acted as a “check digit” in a barcode that ensured the letter’s authenticity. Since Hebrews 13.25 included this “check digit,” Paul’s σημεῖον, we have further evidence of Paul’s authorship of Hebrews.

3. Hebrews Location in the Canon

W. H. P. Hatch summed up the evidence as follows:

In the manuscripts and versions of the New Testament, in lists of books accepted as canonical, and in the works of ecclesiastical writers the Epistle to the Hebrews occupies three different positions: (I) Among the epistles addressed to churches, i.e. after Romans, after 2 Corinthians, and very rarely after Galatians, Ephesians, Colossians, and Titus. (II) After 2 Thessalonians, i.e. after the epistles to the churches. (III) After Philemon, i.e. at the end of the Pauline canon.¹¹

A folio page of P⁴⁶

$\mathfrak{P}$ ⁴⁶, one of the oldest extant New Testament manuscripts on papyrus, and dated about 200 A.D., contains most of the Pauline epistles. It contains (in order) the last eight chapters of Romans, all of Hebrews, almost all of 1–2 Corinthians, all of Ephesians, Galatians, Philippians, Colossians, and two chapters of 1 Thessalonians.

The main points are two:

1. Hebrews is found in the earliest manuscripts of the Pauline corpus.
2. Hebrews is located in various places in the canon but always in the Pauline corpus. In the oldest uncials (א A B C) it follows 2 Thessalonians and is before the Pastorals. In the predessors of Codex B, it is between Galatians and Ephesians. In the Sahidic version it is before Galatians and in the Chester-Beatty papyrus codex it is located right after Romans.

4. Audience, Purpose, and Date of the Letter

Hebrews was written from Italy (Hebrews 13.24). While the author did not state his name, he assumed his audience knew him (Hebrews 10.32-34, 13.19, 22-23). Galatians was written to Gentiles and Hebrews was written to Jews but they shared a common purpose. The message of both was that hope no longer existed in the Mosaic Law or in the ministrations of the Temple, i.e. the Levitical sacrifices.

The letter was sent most likely to the assembly in Jerusalem. Paul was persona non grata in Jerusalem and this would explain anonymity. Jerusalem was the center of Law-keeping Jews. Even though the Jewish leaders had reached an agreement with Paul at the Jerusalem Council (Acts 15), they continued to advance the Mosaic Law. When Paul came to Jerusalem, James reveled in the Mosaic Law (Acts 21.17-21). This demonstrates he had little understanding of or sympathy with Paul’s ministry. Peter also had difficulties with Paul but recognized the glorified Lord had revealed to Paul, truths He had not shown the Twelve. He recognized and acknowledged Paul was the future and instructed his Jewish readers to heed him (2 Peter 3.15-16 cf. Acts 15.11). The jurisdiction of the Mosaic Law was over. Paul had argued vigorously that Gentiles were free from it, but more than that, the Law had ended for Jews also. Paul wrote Hebrews to explain to Jews the Law’s meaning and significance in light of God’s work of the cross. The issue was Christ’s death and resurrection, not Law.

Another possibility is that Hebrews was written to assemblies in Asia Minor. Sadly, despite Paul’s tireless work in this region, i.e., Galatia, Ephesus, Colossae, Lystra, Iconium, Antioch of Pisidia, the established churches abandoned his teachings (2 Timothy 1.15). In light Paul’s letter to the Galatians, it seems likely (influenced by the Jerusalem assembly) they left Paul’s teachings and followed the Law-keeping Jews of Jerusalem.

Defection from Paul’s doctrines began in his lifetime and has continued for nearly 2,000 years. The doctrines of the Twelve and Paul have been merged and homogenized into a syncretic mess. Paul has been read into the gospels and the gospels into Paul. The vast majority of Christendom spends most of its time in the gospels. The Twelve are viewed as apostles of the Church instead of Paul, the apostle of the Church, the body of Christ. But the Scriptures reveal the Twelve were apostles of Israel (cf. Matthew 19.28) not the Church. They had nothing to do with the Church. The Lord committed the great doctrines of the Church, the body of Christ, to Paul alone. Paul called these doctrines “secrets.” The Twelve never had a ministry to Gentiles. That was the domain the risen Lord gave Paul. Since most of Christendom spends 90% of its time in the gospels, it remains ignorant of Paul’s great truths for the Church. This explains the Church’s confusion and weakness. While the gospels are beneficial, as is all Scripture (2 Timothy 3.16), for learning (Romans 15.4; 1 Corinthians 10.11), the gospels are Old Testament. They were written to Jews for Jews. They recorded the Lord’s ministry to Israel (Romans 15.8), not to the Church, the body of Christ.

Paul probably wrote Hebrews early, around 53 A.D.¹² right after he wrote the Thessalonians. Paul was deeply grieved over Jewish rejection of the Messiah. After he arrived in Rome, only three days passed before he met with the chief Jews of the city (Acts 28.17). According to Luke’s record, some believed Paul’s message and some rejected it (Acts 28.24). This was Paul’s third major appeal to the Jews (cf. Acts 13, 18, 28) during the Acts period. Is it not reasonable, given Paul’s zeal for evangelism to Jews, his determination to go to Jerusalem despite dire warnings, and the fact he had time, for him to have written a systematic exposition to demonstrate to Jews that Christ had fulfilled the Law, the Old Testament types, and was indeed the Messiah? Was anyone better equipped for such a task?

4. Literary Similarities

We have already examined the salutation correspondences of Paul’s letters to Gentile churches, i.e., Romans through Philemon, to Hebrews. Other indicators of Pauline authorship include his usage of Habakkuk 2.4, quoted three times in the New Testament: Romans 1.17, Galatians 3.11, and Hebrews 10.38. Such quotation fits with Paul’s great emphasis on faith (Romans 3.26-30, 4.3-5, 5.1; Galatians 2.16, Ephesians 2.8-9, et. al. cf. Hebrews 4.2, 6.1, 12, 10.22, 38-39, 11.1-9, 11, 13, 17, 20-24, 27-31, 33, 39, 12.2, 13.7). Paul exalted Christ over all created beings (Ephesians 1.10, 20, 4.10; Philippians 2.9-10; Colossians 1.14-21; 2 Thessalonians 1.7 cf. Hebrews 1.1-14, 4.14, 7.26, 8.1). Other themes expounded in Hebrews include heavenly calling (1 Corinthians 15.49; 2 Corinthians 5.1-2; Ephesians 1.3, 2.6; Philippians 3.20; 2 Timothy 4.18 cf. Hebrews 3.1, 11.16, 12.22),¹³ and the temporary nature of the Mosaic Law (2 Corinthians 3.6-18; Galatians 3.19-26 cf. Hebrews 7.18-19, 8.3-10.13). Expressions such as “but now” (νυν[ὶ] δὲ) are found throughout Paul’s writings and in Hebrews (Hebrews 2.8, 8.6, 9.26, 11.16, 12.26).¹⁴

The author’s purpose in writing is revealed in Hebrews 13.22. It reads:

And I beseech you, brethren, suffer the word of exhortation: for I have written a letter unto you in few words.

The word “exhortation” is παράκλησις. Only Luke and Paul used this word. Indeed, Paul delivered the word word of exhortation to the Jews at Psidia Antioch (Acts 13.15). Lastly, no other writer wrote about the body of Christ. It is uniquely Paul. It is found in his others letters. And it is found in Hebrews 13.3.

Conclusion

This is where I need write: Game Over. Arguments against Pauline authorship of Hebrews are sickly and feeble. Arguments for alternative authors have all the weaknesses and none of the strengths of Pauline authorship and only highly speculative arguments can be made for non-Paul authors. That modern scholarship has hungrily seized such arguments demonstrates infirmity, not health.

Evidence for Pauline authorship of Hebrews is more than substantial: it is overwhelming. The most reasonable explanation, recognized early in Church history, is Paul wrote Hebrews. When the internal evidence is examined, it overcomes easily issues of style. It is possible Luke worked with Paul and penned it but that is the only thing in doubt. Paul wrote Hebrews.

¹Echoing the hubris of recent scholarship, Dan Wallace stated in Hebrews: Introduction, Argument, and Outline, “the arguments against Pauline authorship, however, are conclusive.” In the same work, he stated authorship of Hebrews was “explicitly denied by Origen, the successor to Clement, who uttered his now-famous agnostic confession: ‘Whoever wrote the epistle, God only knows for sure.’” Dr. Wallace fails to recognize Origen’s words expressed uncertainty, not denial. Such a statement creates doubt as to his having read Origen.
²Ibid.
³ Paul, like most of us, learned some lessons the hard way. The Jews wished (and tried) to kill him. They failed, but their persecution resulted in his imprisonment. Paul wrote he was “the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles” (Ephesians 3.1). The Lord Himself put Paul In prison (in rented quarters, not a dungeon) to focus his attention upon his commission, “the apostle to the Gentiles” (Romans 11.13). After this experience, Paul no longer went to Jew “first” (cf. Romans 1.16).
⁴Eta Linnemann, “A Call for a Retrial in the Case of the Epistle to the Hebrews,” Faith and Mission, vol. 19, Issue 2, 2002, p.37. Professor Linneman’s article is essential reading for those who doubt Pauline authorship. She takes to task many arguments advanced against Pauline authorship and largely demolishes them. Another excellent study that addresses literary and theological similarities between Galatians and Hebrews is Ben Witherington’s article, “The Influence of Galatians on Hebrews,” New Testament Studies, vol. 37, no. 1, January 1991, 146-152.
⁵ See What Origen really taught about the authorship of Hebrews by Benno Zuiddam.
⁶ See David L. Allen, Lukan Authorship of Hebrews, B & H Academic, 2010.; Dave Black, Origen on the Authorship of Hebrews; Andrew W. Pitts and Joshua F. Walker, The Authorship of Hebrews: A Further Development in the Luke-Paul Relationship.
⁷ Paul Ellingworth, The Epistle to the Hebrews: A Commentary on the Greek Text, Eerdmans, 1993, p. 7.
⁸ See the author’s study, The Great Hinge.
⁹ See the author’s study, Paul’s “Mystery”.
¹⁰ See the author’s study, Inspiration of Scripture.
¹¹ William H. P. Hatch, “The Position of Hebrews in the Canon of the New Testament,” The Harvard Theological Review, Vol. 29, No. 2 (Apr., 1936), pp. 133. Professor Hatch’s work is the definitive study of this subject. F.F. Bruce noted that the Chester Beatty collection of manuscripts, the “oldest known surviving copy of the Pauline letters” (dated end of the second century), includes Hebrews among the Pauline writings (F.F. Bruce, Paul: Apostle of the Heart Set Free [Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 2000], 466).
¹²Internal evidence of the letter eliminates the possibility it was written after 70 A.D. The Temple and its operations were clearly continuing. Furthermore, given the subject matter of the letter, had the Temple been destroyed it could not have escaped mention. See John A.T. Robinson, Redating the New Testament, London, SCM Press, 1976. Robinson was a liberal theologian who recognized that evidence to support the chronological arguments of liberal theologians in dating New Testament texts was threadbare. His book stunned the scholarly community because he dated all New Testament books before 70 A.D.–earlier than most conservative scholars. Paul’s statement in Hebrews 13.24, “those from Italy greet you” is evidence he wrote from Rome during his imprisonment as did his request for prayer for restoration in Hebrews 13.18-19. Paul wrote he was made a minister to complete the Scriptures (Colossians 1.25). This eliminates potential authors of Hebrews beyond c. 68 A.D., e.g., Clement of Rome.
¹³ One of Paul’s great secrets was that the Church, the body of Christ, was a new creation with a heavenly destiny. Israel’s hope was earthly. This is what all the covenants and Old Testament prophecies proclaimed. Thus, Jesus instructed his disciples to pray for the kingdom to come, “on earth as it is in heaven” (Matthew 6.10). Nothing in the Old Testament or in Jesus’ ministry revealed a heavenly destiny for Jewish believers. Heavenly citizenship was an unknown truth until the risen Lord disclosed it to Paul. Paul used the term ἐπουράνιος to describe the believer’s heavenly destiny and relationship. It occurs 23x in 17 verses (John 3.12, 1 Corinthians 15.40, 48-49; Ephesians 1.3, 20, 2.6, 3.10, 6.12, Philippians 2.10, 2 Timothy 4.18; Hebrews 3.1, 6.4, 8.5, 9.23, 11.16, 12.22). Other than the one occurrence in John, it occurred only in Paul’s letters and Hebrews.
¹⁴ See the author’s study, But Now….

Updated, May 6, 2016

190 thoughts on “Who Wrote Hebrews?”

Eli "Hoss" Caldwell March 25, 2014 at 11:45 am
I have never studied out the authorship of Hebrews very closely, I am not disagreeing with you. But this has popped to mind and I was wondering if you had anything to say about it.
Hebrews 7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
Romans 6:14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
How could Paul teach that the law had just changed to one group, but tell one group that they were not under the law at all. Wouldn’t Paul be the only one in the Bible that wrote different letters to different people under different dispensations? Any thoughts?
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 25, 2014 at 2:18 pm
  Hoss,
  The argument in Hebrews you have noted supports Pauline authorship. The argument is that the priesthood established and governed by the Mosaic Law could not meet the requirements to remove sin. It could deal with the problem only in a temporary fashion. Jesus was of Judah, not Levi, and was a priest of the line of Melchizedek. Who else but Paul could have made this argument? The Twelve and those of the Jerusalem church were completely attached to the Mosaic Law. Only Paul taught the Mosaic Law was over. This agrees with the argument in Hebrews (Hebrews 7.18-19, 28). The “change of law” was change in the sense of abandonment or nullification of the existing program (Mosaic Law) for a new program under a new covenant. This is what the verb μετατίθημι and the noun μετάθεσις mean.
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  1. James Brown July 2, 2019 at 10:12 am
    I believe for a fact that Paul was not the author, here’s why. Hebrews 4:2a reads: “For unto us was the gospel preached,” Galatians 1:11-12. That tells me that Paul didn’t receive the gospel he preached but by revelation from the risen Lord, whereas the author received the gospel through preaching. Just the way I read the passages. Thank You for this site I do appreciate it.
    Reply ↓
    1. doctrine Post authorJuly 2, 2019 at 10:23 am
      James,
      If you see “us” as Paul, then yes. But in the context of the whole passage, “us” is Israel, Jews, not Paul. Paul is not speaking about himself but the nation.
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Rob Klein March 28, 2014 at 1:03 pm
Don,
Finished reading this yesterday. Well done; and it makes sense.
[I wanted to point out software glitch. Where you are quoting Eusebius talking about Clement of Alexandria early in the article, there are four points (as I remember). At the end of the second point there is a link for the book of Acts. Then the third point begins. The link reads “Acts. 3.” I think it will make sense when you look at it. Anyway, I point it out because it was confusing when I read it].
Thanks again for your research.
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 29, 2014 at 8:20 am
  Thanks, Rob. The software tool links to all Bible passages. Unfortunately, I cannot “delink” it for a particular passage. Sorry for the confusion.
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Jacksom March 4, 2015 at 5:52 am
From the salutations in all Paul’s letters, the beginning chapters all had his usual salutations but Hebrews does not, salutations l believe should be in the beginning of a letter, how do you relate this to Hebrews?
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 4, 2015 at 7:55 am
  Jacksom,
  I do not think Paul wanted to declare his authorship explicitly to the Jews by his usual salutation. The Lord had told him the Jews would not listen to him (Acts 22.18) and this was proven (Acts 13, 18, 28). However, he does close the letter with “grace be with you all” which was also his signature.
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  1. Mark panther February 7, 2019 at 2:34 pm
    Is Hebrews considered to be a transitional book like acts?
    In the Times past, But now, and Ages to come charts.
    I don’t see how only Hebrews thru Revelations fits in the Ages to come part.
    My thinking is that the 4 gospels would or should also be included
    Reply ↓
    1. doctrine Post authorFebruary 8, 2019 at 10:12 am
      Mark,
      Yes, Hebrews is transitional like Acts. I don’t understand the bit about the charts.
      Reply ↓
Jacksom March 5, 2015 at 8:10 am
Paul said in 2 thess3 vs17, that he will use his usual salutation in ALL his letters, but it wasn’t used in Hebrews like in the other 13 letters, how do you explain that, again in gal 2vs 7-9, where Paul was to take the gospel to the Gentiles and they James, John, and cep has unto the Jews, how do you relate that he wrote to the Jews in Hebrews?
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 5, 2015 at 8:27 am
  Jacksom,
  Read Acts 9.15. Paul’s habit was to go first to Jews then to Gentiles (cf. Acts 13, 18, 28). He wrote Hebrews prior to Acts 28.
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  1. Jacksom March 5, 2015 at 8:19 pm
    You still didn’t relate Paul first preaching to the Jews then to the Gentiles to gal2 vs 7-9.
    Reply ↓
    1. doctrine Post authorMarch 6, 2015 at 8:12 am
      Jacksom,
      Paul’s primary audience was Gentile. We know he also went to Jews based on Luke’s record and this accords with what the Lord told Ananias in Acts 9.15. Paul seems to have ceased Jewish ministry around 60 A.D. No record exists of the 12 ministering to Gentiles.
      Reply ↓
Jacksom March 6, 2015 at 8:53 pm
Did Paul still minister to the Jews after the acts 15, the council at Jerusalem.?
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 7, 2015 at 9:16 am
  Jacksom,
  Yes. See Acts 18, 28.
  Reply ↓
Jacksom March 6, 2015 at 9:08 pm
If Paul ceased to minister to the Jewish ministry around 60 A.D, how do you relate that he wrote to Jews in Hebrew, if the Hebrew was written approximately 67A.D,
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 7, 2015 at 9:21 am
  Jacksom,
  I wrote in the article (under topic #4) that I think Paul wrote Hebrews around 60.
  Reply ↓
Becky March 7, 2015 at 6:48 pm
Hi Don, I had a thought today about Hebrews 11:1. It gives the definition of “faith. I racked my old brain trying to remember if there was anywhere else in Scripture that defines faith. Then I wondered if the definition itself was considered a mystery. I found one verse that speaks of “the mystery of the faith,” I Tim 3:9. I then searched “the faith” and was amazed at how many times “the faith” is mentioned. I thought, What is “the faith”? I can assume i know the answer, even via Scripture, but “the faith” means a lot of things to a lot of people. I plan on looking into this more.
I did learn today that other than Jesus in Mark and John in Revelation, Paul is the only person who used the word “mystery” or “mysteries.” Is that correct? My point is that without Heb 11:1, we really wouldnt know the actual definition of faith. Just sounds like a Paul thing to me. I remembered that you had this study on Who wrote Hebrews? so i thought maybe this is something you have thought about. Could it be that the definition of “faith,” Heb 11:1, was one of Paul’s “secrets”? Again, I just couldn’t find or remember anywhere else in Scripture where faith is defined.
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 10, 2015 at 9:35 pm
  Becky,
  “The faith” must be interpreted in context, e.g. Acts 6.7. Prior to Paul it was believing who Jesus was. For Paul, it was the work of Christ. Paul’s gospel was a secret but the gospel of the 12 was not. It had been preached by John the Baptist and Jesus. The definition of faith in Hebrews 11.1 is the best in Scripture.
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  1. becky March 10, 2015 at 10:43 pm
    Thank you, i will look closely at context from now on for “the faith.” Funny how i never thought of this before. Thanks so much.
    BTW, What is it that you have written at the bottom of each of your pages?
    Reply ↓
    1. doctrine Post authorMarch 14, 2015 at 9:44 am
      Becky,
      Galatians 2.20 and Ketiv Qere.
      Reply ↓
George March 31, 2015 at 1:01 am
Hi Bro Don,
I too believe that Paul wrote Hebrews, but the question I ask myself is Hebrews written for Jews in the tribulation, where an individual can lose their salvation before inheriting the millennial kingdom of God and heaven. I can see Paul, getting saved under the kingdom gospel, immediately preaching hebrews but it is hard for me to see Paul preaching Hebrews after he receives the revelation of the mystery of the body of Christ. Which gospel was Paul preaching in those synagogues?
Also I asked a question regarding whether Luke was part of the body of Christ or part of the Jewish remnant- little flock as were the apostles? I can’t seem to find in which article I asked you that question, sorry for that :( By answering these two questions maybe I can get a better grasp on understanding Hebrews dispensationally, thanks again for your wisdom and patience..,
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 31, 2015 at 7:42 am
  George,
  Paul ministered to Jews until about 60 A.D. which is when Acts ends. Hebrews sums and adds to what he taught in Acts 13, 18, and 28. I do not know about Luke’s status.
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2. ESTEVES FRANCISCO November 28, 2018 at 11:28 am
  the BOOK of HEBREWS 6 : 2 kjv DOCTRINE of BAPTISMS more then one baptism in the bible …. yet Apostle paul clearly says there is one baptism Ephesians 4 : 5 KJV and we are All baptized by the Spirit 1 Corninthians 12 : 13 KJV and Colossians 2 : 11 – 12 kjv and Galatians 3 : 26 – 27 KJV the Spirit puts us in Christ. yet Apostle paul clearly says christ sent him not to baptize 1 Corninthians 1 : 17 KJV
  Reply ↓
George March 31, 2015 at 11:17 am
Ok Bro Don, when you say he ministered to Jews, which gospel was he preaching to them? Was Paul preaching to them -step1- the kingdom gospel in order to identify their messiah and then step 2 – for the Jews that believed in the synagogues that Paul went to, took these believers out and brought them into the body of Christ gospel, perhaps that is what he did with Luke?
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 31, 2015 at 12:36 pm
  George,
  Paul preached the gospel of the grace of God (Acts 20.24; 1 Corinthians 15.1-4). We are given too little information to know specifically the content of his messages but it seems he focused particularly on the OT Scriptures in speaking to Jews. His challenge was to convince them Jesus was the prophesied Messiah.
  Reply ↓
  1. Bobbi November 26, 2017 at 10:18 am
    Don,
    Though it bothered me when I first learned the truth that Paul preached the gospel of the kingdom when he was first saved, I have realized, that to believe Christ died for our sins, was buried and rose on the 3rd day for our justification, …one would first have to believe who Jesus is. This doesn’t bother me anymore that Paul was trying
    to get even “some” of his brethren according to the flesh saved! He himself even had to believe in Jesus first. It makes perfect sense.
    Many people don’t realize that the Bible says Gentiles “in times past” were without God altogether except we have always had the creation as his witness and conscience.
    This would also go with why we as Gentiles are not “born again”, but we are made “new creatures”. As Israel was God’s firstborn son
    And we’re born as a nation in the exodus from Egypt. Thus they have to be born again! Where we who were outside fellowship have been created new, therefore we now have fellowship with God.
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Kim N. May 26, 2015 at 1:40 pm
To those who say Paul DID NOT write the epistle to the Hebrews (some of my bible teachers in college were in this group) I respect their opinion but I would say to them the epistle was written by a man of brilliant intellect and deep spirituality whose former name was Saul of Tarsus, who else can write this great epistle?
Romans moves from law to grace and Hebrews, from shadow to substance. The grace salutations are enough to attest to the authorship of this epistle. I have always admired the apostle to the Gentile and rank him second only to Jesus Christ, the Head and Lord of the church.
Don, thank you so much for this great article and teaching me many truths of the sacred Scriptures. May God bless you with good health and peace.
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1. doctrine Post authorMay 26, 2015 at 2:13 pm
  Kim,
  Thank you. Indeed, who else?!
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Jacksom September 26, 2015 at 5:07 pm
In hebrews2:3 How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began by the lord and was confirmed unto us by them that heard him,
My question is what is great salvation in this verse.
2. Who are the US. it was confirmed unto.
3. And who are the them that heard him.
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1. doctrine Post authorSeptember 26, 2015 at 7:11 pm
  Jacksom,
  The salvation is Christ’s death on the cross to pay for our sins. The audience is Jews. Those who heard Him were Jewish believers.
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  1. Craig December 3, 2018 at 6:10 am
    Don, I have been wondering about Hebrews 10:25 where it says not to forsake the assembling together, and how Christians say it means we should not miss Sunday church services. Yet Hebrews was written to Jews. Were these Jewish believers attending church services once a week?
    Reply ↓
    1. doctrine Post authorDecember 3, 2018 at 8:46 am
      Craig,
      The passage has nothing to do with Sunday church. It simply means that believers (in this case, Jews) should not forsake gathering to hear the Scriptures and the view was towards the soon return of Christ.
      Reply ↓
      1. Craig December 4, 2018 at 4:40 am
        Were all of these Jews in Hebrews believers? Why were some on the fence about going all the way with Jesus? Was it because of persecution or because they couldn’t leave Judaism behind and wanted to go back under the law?
        Reply ↓
        doctrine Post authorDecember 4, 2018 at 7:21 am
        Craig,
        I want to study Hebrews again but it seems from Paul’s language that some of these Jews were not believers. Jews had been under the Mosaic Law for 1,500 years and it was difficult for some of them to understand that it had been fulfilled in Christ. James wrote about believing Jews zealous for the Law (Acts 21.20). We’re not given details, e.g., were they still offering animal sacrifices? Other than Hebrews, Paul’s words to the Jews in Acts 13 are the best evidence of what he preached to them.
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Jacksom September 27, 2015 at 7:03 pm
It’s says the salvation was first began by the lord. Did the lord preach the finished cross work in the fresh? And those you heard your Jewish believers apostles, also they preach the finished cross work from the text. From the text the salvation was believing that in the name of Jesus , repent and be baptized, not believe in the finished works of Jesus.
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1. doctrine Post authorSeptember 28, 2015 at 7:42 am
  Jacksom,
  The salvation referred to here is the gospel of the kingdom that began with John the Baptist.
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Jacksom September 28, 2015 at 8:18 am
Ok, this clears it, what is the book of Hebrews about. Did it move from gospel of the kingdom to the gospel of grace?
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1. doctrine Post authorSeptember 28, 2015 at 12:24 pm
  Jacksom,
  The message of Hebrews is that the reality of the types in the OT have come in the person of the Son and that the Jews only hope of salvation is in Him. I believe Paul wrote Hebrews in prison just before he wrote Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, Philemon as his last attempt to reach Jews first (Romans 1.16-17). So yes, it was in the realm of the gospel of grace and we find Jesus’ death and resurrection mentioned but in ways that would be most meaningful to Jews (e.g., Hebrews 1.3, 8, 2.9, 18, 10.12, 12.2, 13.12, 20).
  Reply ↓
Jacksom September 28, 2015 at 4:20 pm
The death and resurrection was mentioned but was the finished works mentioned,
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1. doctrine Post authorSeptember 28, 2015 at 8:33 pm
  Jacksom,
  I’m not sure I understand your question but please read Hebrews 9. The work was finished.
  Reply ↓
Pierre September 29, 2015 at 5:45 am
Hello Brother Don, has anyone consider Melchisedec? It appears that “Melchizedek’ in the OT is the “human” form (Genesis 14:18) and the “Melchisedec” in the NT would be the Spirit form. (Hebrews 7:3)
Also in the OT David speaks about Melchizedek in Psalms 110:4 “The LORD has sworn”
If this is true, Melchisedec; could/would have wrote chapter 1-13:1-21
And Melchizedek; could/would have wrote chapter 13:22-25 in closing. The reason for the splitting of authors would be, the two respects of “Amen”. I also realize other scriptures have more than one respect of Amen. It appears as spirit/human. {Pure speculation on my part}
The vast majority of the NT books/letters (not including the gospels) opens with an introduction of the author “just like Hebrews 1:1 God, who at…” YES, GOD! {not shouting, just expressing respect}
It speaks of him as king of Salem, priest of the most high God & how great he was. Once again, Hebrews 7:3 (but made like unto the Son of God) To put emphasis on the understanding on the word “made”. Scripture never said; Melchisedec was created, formed, begotten or born. Please understand I don’t want to blow this part out of context because of Genesis 1:26, 2:7 & 5:1,2.
Now some may say this is Jesus but I beg the differ. Hebrews 7:15-17 would clarify this is not Jesus. He didn’t “order” himself.
Thank you for allowing me to comment on such a wonder topic. God bless!
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1. doctrine Post authorSeptember 29, 2015 at 7:52 am
  Pierre,
  Please see my article, https://doctrine.org/melchizedek-and-the-most-high-god. Grace and peace.
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peter e droubay February 8, 2016 at 2:06 am
anyone who reads in greek will recognize that the greek of Hebrews is MUCH higher and different than in any other NT letter. many quotations of Septuagint, which originated in Alexandria. Apollos was one of the 4 mentioned in 1 corinthians; many respected him and he was such a scholar in the word, and a Jew who visited all the churches, familiar with Paul and Timothy, who received the faith from second generation Christians: this is not Paul; all those mentioned in 1 corinthians wrote scripture in a sense: paul, peter, Jesus, and Apollos; He , not Barnabas was encouraged to visit all the Nt churches; no others were so qualified and would write in high Alexandrian greek style with Septuagint quotations;
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1. doctrine Post authorFebruary 8, 2016 at 1:04 pm
  Peter,
  The key problem for Apollos as the author of Hebrews is that no evidence supports it. His name was suggested first by Luther. Internal and external evidence overwhelmingly favors Pauline authorship. I recommend the article by Eta Linnemann which I have cited. She deal with literary, style, linguistics of Hebrews and Paul.
  Reply ↓
  1. Eric February 8, 2016 at 2:23 pm
    PAUL DID NOT WRITE HEBREWS!
    Note: Hebrews 2:3 “and was confirmed unto us BY THEM that heard him.” ( Think about that statement for a minute )
    Now compare that with Gal 1:12 “For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of JESUS CHRIST.”
    PAUL WAS TAUGHT BY CHRIST HIMSELF, NOT BY THEM THAT HEARD HIM
    Reply ↓
    1. doctrine Post authorFebruary 8, 2016 at 2:39 pm
      Eric,
      “Confirmed” and “received” do not mean the same thing. The kingdom gospel was confirmed to Paul by those who heard Him. Not Paul’s gospel!
      Reply ↓
      1. Eric Streff February 8, 2016 at 11:58 pm
        Well that explains it! Christ taught Paul the gospel of the grace of God but left out the gospel of the kingdom of God. The gospel of the kingdom of God he had to have confirmed unto him by others. Hmmmm, totally makes sense….or does it? At any rate this would be one of those debates that isn’t really profitable.
        I’ll spend some time on your Faith/Works article instead.
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        doctrine Post authorFebruary 9, 2016 at 7:55 am
        Eric,
        Understanding the distinction between the gospel of the kingdom and the gospel of grace is profitable. The reason Hebrews 2.3 is used as an argument against Pauline authorship is not only because of poor exegetical work but failure to understand the difference in the ministry of the Twelve and Paul. Far too many teach there has always only been one gospel. Such teaching has created great confusion and has no Scriptural support.
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        Rob Dressel November 18, 2016 at 12:16 am
        Is Hebrews 10:26 written to the Body of Christ?
        Reply ↓
        doctrine Post authorNovember 18, 2016 at 8:40 am
        Rob,
        Hebrews was written to Jews to show them that Jesus was the Messiah. Read Acts 13.16-41. Hebrews is that argument in formal, expanded form.
        Reply ↓
Eric Streff March 22, 2016 at 12:11 am
If the book of Hebrews is only for Jews and not Christians why would the author say in Hebrews 3:1 they were partakers of the heavenly calling?
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 22, 2016 at 7:38 am
  Eric,
  They were partakers of a heavenly calling. They were called by God. Verse 2 references Moses. What did Gentile believers have to do with Moses? Why cite the experience at Kadesh Barnea (verse 8) if they were not Jews?
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  1. Grace Receiver March 23, 2016 at 2:54 pm
    I agree that Hebrews was written to the Jews, but have been hesitant to use the argument that you just did (about Kadesh Barnea). The reason that I say this is because of 1 Cor. 10:1. If Paul is writing to mainly Gentiles in his Corinthian epistle, why does he cite the experience of the Exodus, and go even as far as to call them “our fathers”?
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    1. doctrine Post authorMarch 24, 2016 at 8:58 am
      Grace Receiver,
      Paul wrote the Scriptures (OT since the NT did not not exist) were written for our learning (Romans 15.4). In the 1 Corinthians passage you cited, Paul went on to write the same thing in 1 Corinthians 10.11. Jewish believers were evidently among Paul’s converts in the Corinthians church. They would know these Scriptures and relate to them and expound on them to benefit Gentile believers.
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      1. Eric Streff March 25, 2016 at 11:31 pm
        Interesting, how the Gentile believers of that day could benefit from those scriptures but today we supposedly can’t.
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        doctrine Post authorMarch 26, 2016 at 7:55 am
        Eric,
        I do not follow your conclusion. All Scripture is God-breathed and profitable (2 Timothy 3.16).
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ALEXANDER TAYLOR June 9, 2016 at 7:12 pm
Could you explain why none of the New Testament writters, wrote about the event that happen in A.D. 70 (the destruction of the temple)
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1. doctrine Post authorJune 9, 2016 at 8:09 pm
  Alexander,
  The destruction had not happened. The Scriptures were completed before 70 A.D. Paul completed the Scriptures according to Colossians 1.25 and he died in about 67-68 A.D. The Lord prophesied it in Luke 21.29-24.
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Becky June 14, 2016 at 8:03 am
Hi Don,
I absolutely loved this article. It raised the question as to why the authorship of Hebrews caused controversy? Was it due to whether or not it should be canonized or was there another reason?
I’m happy it made it into our bible, whoever wrote it . . . I believe it was Paul.
May the Lord bless you always.
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1. doctrine Post authorJune 14, 2016 at 8:16 am
  Becky,
  Thank you. I’m glad the article was helpful. I think the primary issue was authorship. The earliest manuscripts (P46) contain Hebrews and it was always within Paul’s letters.
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  1. Bobbi August 15, 2016 at 11:11 pm
    That’s an interesting fact! Thank you. Good to know. I read by one historian he thought it written by Barnabas, but the gospel of Barnabas was quite decidedly a heretical work. ( Not my words. )
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Kyle August 7, 2016 at 1:32 am
Hey Brother Don,
I thank God that I have found your website, as I have grown much in the faith from the wisdom you recieved from the Holy Scriptures. I know that all scripture is profitable, but even if Paul wrote this epistle it is not directed to the Body of Christ, right? If it were then a believer’s position in Christ would be in jeopardy, as some argue of the possibility of losing salvation , i.e. Hebrews 6,10. As well if it were directed to the Body then we would be under the New Testament, not solely under dispensation of grace. I do not think you hold the position that we are “New Testament Christians”. This epistle is aimed in trying to persuade Jews that the Old Testament is over and that the New Testament is more excellent, I understand that. It cannot be confused with the Gospel of the Grace of God/ dispensation of grace revealed to Paul first, for the epistle reveals not hidden “secrets/ mysteries” of the church , but rather fulfillments of types and shadows already spoken about by the prophets. I understand that the evidence of this epistle is written by Paul, but I think the epistle should be rightly divided for the Jews for the tribulation. I would greatly apreciate your incite and knowledge on these points. Thank you.
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 7, 2016 at 8:20 am
  Kyle,
  I am convinced Paul wrote Hebrews, and as the title implies, was written to Jews. The point was to persuade the Jews Jesus was the Christ. This fits with Luke’s record of Paul going to the Jews in Acts. Luke recorded Paul’s reasoning with them throughout the Acts period. The point of Hebrews 6 is not that one can lose salvation but that no salvation exists apart from Christ. For a Jew to reject Him was to “lose” salvation. Read Acts 13 and 28 and see how neatly it meshes with Paul’s arguments in Hebrews. It was not written to the Church, the body of Christ, but is profitable to show how, all along, God had a plan of redemption and that everything in the OT spoke of Him. Grace and peace.
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  1. Raymond Dierkers November 18, 2016 at 1:47 am
    Why is the first word of all 13 epistles Paul? Why would he be so ignorant not to gives reasonable doubt that he wrote Hebrews? He was very descriptive of writing with his own hand. Why and who are any human to declare an author when God is the author of all scripture? God is the first word in Hebrews. A few words Timothy that he calls a son not a brother, and Italy does not declare Paul’s authorship. I am no scholar, by any means. God has preserved his word through thousands of years, and also left the author unknown, so we would rightly divide to receive God’s approval. Heb 2:3-4 is speaking of Pentecost. Saul is first consenting to the death of Steven. In MMLJ they understood not those things. Where is the gospel of the grace of God? The finished work of the cross in Hebrews? Why would Paul not describe the his gospel as he did in 1 Cor 15:1-4? Hebrews is an introduction to the material in the other Hebrew epistles. Gal 2:7-9 … we have the text… even verse and chapter was added after the mid evil days or somewhere in that vicinity. The publishers have corrupted the text. Do you see anywhere where Paul endorses an exact date of any epistle? Do you think that Paul wrote this to both? Jew and gentile. Where are you getting 6OAD? 2:3-4 6:4-5 10:25-26 38,39 – seems strongly to contradict Paul’s gospel that he got personally from Jesus. Why did Jesus allow him to say my gospel? Do you believe that the Body of Christ is positionally in Christ, and blinded Israel is redemptively in Christ? In Christ and the Body of Christ are they the same?
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    1. doctrine Post authorNovember 18, 2016 at 8:58 am
      Raymond,
      Read Acts 13.16-41 and consider whether Paul wrote Hebrews.
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Bobbi August 15, 2016 at 8:29 pm
Hi doctrine, just read an interesting article on this very subject. Apparently, using the KJV Authorized version, the word “bonds” Is used 3 times. The word for “bonds” here is used 18 times in the NT and all 18 are either written by Paul or regarding Paul. Another interesting fact, is that the NIV has taken the word “bonds” out of the translations altogether. http://www.nowtheendbegins.com/does-the-king-james-bible-reveal-the-identity-of-the-author-of-the-book-of-hebrews/ this links the article. Is interesting. Just wanted to share that.
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 15, 2016 at 9:43 pm
  Bobbi,
  Thank you. I have not done a detailed, scientific study of the vocabulary of Paul’s epistles and Hebrews. But I have noticed a great deal of similar vocabulary. I suspect there is a lot to be revealed in such a study. The “bonds” language is one more piece that supports Pauline authorship. Who was know more for imprisonment than Paul? Words translated bonds or chains: δεσμός, see https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=g1199&t=KJV&csrf=Rom&csrt=Heb#s=s_primary_0_1 and ἅλυσις, see https://www.blueletterbible.org/search/search.cfm?Criteria=g254&t=KJV&csrf=Rom&csrt=Heb#s=s_primary_0_1.
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Bobbi August 15, 2016 at 11:01 pm
I love the language of Hebrews. I know it is written to the Hebrew people but it is a fabulous book. My favorite verses are:
Hebrews 12:22-24
“But ye are come unto Mount Sion,
and unto the city of the living God,
the heavenly Jerusalem, and to an innumerable company of angels,
To the general assembly and church of the firstborn,
which are written in heaven,
and to God the judge of all,
and to the spirits of just men made perfect,
And to Jesus the mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of the sprinkling, that speaketh better things than that of Abel.”
The picture that paints is just lovely. Anyway, hope that was fun to look into.
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Bobbi August 15, 2016 at 11:03 pm
I have always thought Paul the author.
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Bobbi September 27, 2016 at 2:04 pm
Another witness is Matthew McGee. In his article on the 7 churches, he states around the same time for Hebrews to have been written by Paul to the scattered jewish churches. He correlates the audience to perhaps being the same as 2Peter, to the scattered in Asia.(Asia minor then area of Turkey today). He ties both to the AD 60’s when there was great persecution and uses Josephus to tie it in. It was a tremendous time of persecution. http://www.matthewmcgee.org/7church.html
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Joe September 28, 2016 at 6:25 pm
Is the Gospel of Grace (Resurrection) offered in Hebrews? If not why?
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1. doctrine Post authorSeptember 29, 2016 at 9:47 am
  Joe,
  No. As to why not, I cannot say. When Paul addressed Jews it was always to demonstrate Jesus was the Christ (read Acts 28).
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Rob Klein September 30, 2016 at 7:52 am
Don,
Is it your position that Paul wrote Hebrews immediately after his conversion – when he was still known as Saul – where in Acts 9:20,22 he is preaching Jesus as the Christ (Messiah)? That would seem to be consistent with your previous answer to Joe.
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1. doctrine Post authorSeptember 30, 2016 at 8:05 am
  Rob,
  I don’t know. I speculate he wrote it while he was in prison in Rome. Paul continued to try and convince the Jews Jesus was the Christ and this was his final message to the Jewish leadership in Rome in Acts 28.
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Marg T. October 12, 2016 at 7:49 am
Hello, Don I was just rereading your “Who Wrote Hebrews?” article, and enjoying it. It refreshes my thinking, which gets a little muddled from hearing opposing arguments. I enjoy and am thankful for your careful, thoughtful, thought-provoking teaching. Thank you, as always. – Anyway, as I came to the spot where there is a picture of the P46 papyrus, I found one little ‘oops’. The very next line reads “Hebrews was written from Italy (Hebrews 13.4)”. Verse 4 is another subject :). You meant (I’m sure) to say verse 24.
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1. doctrine Post authorOctober 12, 2016 at 9:25 am
  Marg,
  Thank you for you kind words and also for the correction. I really appreciate readers close attention.
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Joe November 5, 2016 at 11:16 pm
Assuming Paul wrote Hebrews can we say that because of Paul’s love for the Jews his letter was a reaching out to the believers of the Gospel of the Kingdom and his fear they were in Jeopardy? ….Would a Jew at the time of the writing of Hebrews have been ‘anathema’ ( Gal. Chapter 1)if they had not accepted the Gospel of Grace? Hebrews offers no 1 Corinthinans 15:1-4
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1. doctrine Post authorNovember 6, 2016 at 4:00 pm
  Joe,
  Hebrews is essentially a formal exposition of the addresses he gave the Jews in Acts 13, 18, 28. The gospel of the kingdom ended at Acts 15.11 but Paul continued trying to convince the Jews that Jesus was the promised Messiah. Paul specified in Galatians 1 that anyone was accursed who proclaimed a different gospel that he had received (Galatians 1.11-12). Beyond this, I cannot go.
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Bobbi December 15, 2016 at 5:56 pm
doctrine,
Another article on this subject. Is interesting Paul said that he signed all His letters and yet this one is not signed, to any who think Paul wrote it.(myself https://forwhatsaiththescriptures.wordpress.com/2015/05/19/who-wrote-hebrews/
This one is against Pauline authorship.
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1. doctrine Post authorDecember 16, 2016 at 9:18 am
  Bobbi,
  I answered most of the objections in the article and am more convinced than ever that Paul wrote Hebrews. Just read an excellent article by Ben Witherington, “The Influence of Galatians on Hebrews,” New Testament Studies, vol. 37, no. 1, January 1991, 146-152 that provides additional evidence of Pauline authorship.
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Josh August 16, 2017 at 7:19 am
Doctrine,
There was a famous physicist who toured the country giving lectures. He was making a lot of money doing so. Finally, his driver, who had listened to this one speech over and over, told him that he could give the lesson as well as the physicist could. The physicist challenged him to give the lecture at the next stop and he would pretend to be the driver. So, they swapped places. At the next stop, the driver pretending to be the physicist, gave the speech word for word. Afterwards, an audience member stood up and asked a question. The flummoxed driver replied, ” Why would you ask such an easy question? Why, that question is so easy, I’ll bet my driver could answer it!”
Paul didn’t write Hebrews; his “driver” did. Only this “driver” was as filled with the Holy Spirit as Paul was. By faith, we believe every word of the Bible. You make a great argument for Paul’s authorship, but God said 2 Thessalonians 3:17. I’ve been reading your articles (and the comments) for about a year now, and just about everything you say makes sense. But on this one, God said…
Ben Witherington said, but God said…
Les Feldick said, but God said…
Most of Christendom said, but God said…
“For the wisdom of this world is foolishness with God. For it is written, He takes the wise in their own craftiness.” 1 Corinthians 3:19
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 16, 2017 at 8:59 am
  Josh,
  Compare 2 Thessalonians 3.17-18 with Hebrews 13.25. The salutation is “grace” which Paul used in all his letters.
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Josh August 16, 2017 at 11:18 am
Not trying to be contrary, but if “grace” is the salutation, and the salutation is the “distinguishing mark” or “token” by which Paul wrote, then Paul wrote 1 Peter 1:2, 2 Peter 1:2, 2 John 1:3, and Revelation 1:4?
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 17, 2017 at 7:22 am
  Josh,
  Paul began and ended his letters with grace. All I am saying is that Paul stated this was the stamp of authenticity of his letters. When you say you think Paul’s driver wrote Hebrews do you mean Luke. Origen thought Paul authored Hebrews but it written by someone else. What I maintain is that Paul was the author of Hebrews.
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Josh August 18, 2017 at 7:39 am
There’s this website that I visit often. It’s called doctrine.org. That dude is WAAYYY smarter than I am. He wrote an article called “‘Grace’ as a Technical Term.” In it he explains that Paul kinda “rubbed off” on Luke. He also explains how all of the Pauline epistles start and end with “grace”.
Hebrews doesn’t begin with “Grace”, but it reads like an exhortation to Kingdom believers to endure and non-believers to come to Jesus. Kinda like a really good Baptist sermon. (Don’t read too much into that.)
Picture this: Paul and Barnabas, or Onesiphorus, or Tychicus or Mark, or (your guess is as good as mine) go to the synagogue in Derbe. Paul preaches to the Jew first, but also to the Greek. Hebrews is basically the sermon he gives. As per the above joke, the unnamed driver listens intently. Also, he has a million questions for Paul on the way to Lystra. As they walk, they aren’t distracted by the GPS or the radio or traffic. All the unnamed driver has time for is to listen to the instructions our risen Lord has given to Paul and how to rightly divide the word of Truth and how to become all things to all men in order to win some to Christ.
In this way, Paul kinda did author Hebrews, but God used someone else to write it. I believe that the stamp of authenticity of Paul’s letters was the salutation of Paul “with my own hand”.
Either way, it sure is fun to think about while we’re waiting on Jesus to come back. Thank you for all that you do.
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 18, 2017 at 11:06 am
  Josh,
  Thank you. Probably the only letter Paul “wrote” himself (due to his eye affliction) was Galatians (Galatians 6.11). He dictated the rest (Romans 16.22). Paul had many co-workers who assisted him in ministry–preaching, teaching, traveling, administration, and letter writing. See 1 Corinthians 1.1. Sosthenes was probably the scribe writing the letter.
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Dan L November 20, 2017 at 10:13 pm
Excellent reading. I am wondering, however, about your assertion that, “Since Paul’s writings completed the Scriptures, it means John’s writings were written before Paul’s and that Paul had the last word from God to the human race. Peter, in concert with Paul, recognized Paul’s letters completed the canon. Thus, the canon of Scripture was completed with 2 Timothy, about 68 A.D.”
There is apparently little debate that Paul died under the Roman sword in about 67 a.d. Many recognized scholars remain convinced that Revelation was written between 81 & 96 a.d., which argues against the above statement. There is also apparently some academic debate as to authorship of Revelation, since its author never stated that he knew Jesus personally. (Was it in fact written by ‘John of Patmos’)?
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1. doctrine Post authorNovember 21, 2017 at 8:11 am
  Dan,
  I recognize the vast majority of scholars think Revelation was written late. But the evidence for this is tissue thin. J.A.T. Robinson showed how weak scholarly arguments were for dating any NT books after 70 A.D. Colossians 1.25 settles the matter if you understand Greek and recognize how Paul used πληρόω.
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  1. Tom November 26, 2017 at 11:24 pm
    Thank you for confirming what the work of the holy spirit has placed on my heart.
    Glory to God our Father and to our Lord and Savior Christ Jesus
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Charles Miller March 4, 2018 at 6:43 pm
It sure is good to see another Pauline (Mid-Acts) dispensationalist who still holds to Paul being the writer of Hebrews. I came to the understanding of the purpose of the book of Hebrews by studying Galatians and Acts. The Jewish believers remained Jews, the difference between them and the unbelievers is that they believed in the hope of their nation, the unbelievers did not.
I had to wonder, when were the Jews told about the change of dispensation going on, and where else but in the epistle addressed especially to them. I am in the middle of a study on the epistle to the Hebrews and published just recently my study on Hebrews 2:1-4. If we understand that “we” and “us” means “we Hebrews”, their is no contradiction with Galatians 1:11-12.
Here is the site for my study, if you are interested:
https://distinguishingtruth.com/2018/02/27/a-greater-word/
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Jimmie Gonzalez April 5, 2018 at 6:37 pm
I guess interpreting all of the “our,” “we” and “us” references as the Hebrew people in general supports Paul as the author, although it’s hard not to see him including himself, when obviously he’s a member of the body of Christ. It’s a subjective interpretation, albeit very possible. Where I have a hard time believing Pauline authorship is because of Hebrews 5:9 where a works-based salvation is being taught (“And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him”), which Paul never did and he said let anyone who preaches another gospel be accursed, Galatians 1:8-9. Unless I’m missing something, nowhere else in Hebrews does the author clarify salvation is by grace through faith alone. I know that Hebrews will be relevant again after the dispensation of grace (ages/world to come, Hebrews 2:5) where it will be faith + works again. Could that be the reason why? Also, who do you think the “we” are in Hebrews 2:5. I can only think of James, Peter, John and Jude, who all write to Israel and deal with the ages to come. It just seems odd to me that after the agreement at the Jerusalem council (Galatians 2:9), Paul would associate himself with the ministers of the circumcision. As far as Paul’s greeting/salutation, it’s scripturally not exclusive to him, as John uses the exact same greeting/salutation, Rev. 1:4 and Rev. 22:21. Just wanted to get your thoughts! Thank you for your work of faith and labor of love!
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1. doctrine Post authorApril 8, 2018 at 12:47 pm
  Jimmie,
  Paul was writing Jews as a Jew (1 Corinthians 9.20). Faith=obedience; obedience=faith.
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Brian Boyle May 6, 2018 at 5:10 pm
Doesn’t Hebrews 10:26 imply you can lose your salvation?
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1. doctrine Post authorMay 6, 2018 at 7:35 pm
  Brian,
  Hebrews 10.26 is a warning to Jews who had not believed in Christ that there was no more sacrifice for sins.
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clay August 2, 2018 at 10:58 pm
Now if perfection came through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the law ), what further need was there for another priest to appear, said to be according to the order of Melchizedek and not according to the order of Aaron? For when there is a change of the priesthood, there must be a change of law as well. For the one these things are spoken about belonged to a different tribe. No one from it has served at the altar. Now it is evident that our Lord came from Judah, and Moses said nothing about that tribe concerning priests. And this becomes clearer if another priest like Melchizedek appears, who did not become a priest based on a legal regulation about physical descent but based on the power of an indestructible life. For it has been testified: You are a priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek. So the previous command is annulled because it was weak and unprofitable (for the law perfected nothing), but a better hope is introduced, through which we draw near to God.
Hebrews 7:11-19
When Jesus became our Great High Priest, the law had to be changed because the Mosaic Law didn’t allow for Judaic priests. Therefore, the law was annulled prior Acts 2:38. The law was annulled when the temple veil was torn. Jesus became our high priest when he went into heaven and offered himself. Therefore the law had to have been annulled when he ascended.
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 3, 2018 at 7:33 am
  Clay,
  The Mosaic Law was in full effect until the Temple was destroyed. Animal sacrifices continued, etc. The disciples went to the Temple in Acts 3. James told Paul in Acts 21 about Jewish believers zealous for the Law. The Law as not annulled or changed. Jesus is of the order of Melchizedek, a different order of priesthood, earlier than the Levitical priesthood. His death fulfilled the types portrayed in the Law. But nothing of ever said of the Law being annulled. The Mosaic Law remains for Israel fulfilled through the New Covenant. Paul taught that the Church, the body of Christ, is not subject to the Mosaic Law. The moral law is fulfilled by faith through the Holy Spirit. Again, Israel and the Church must be kept separate.
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joe August 15, 2018 at 3:11 pm
You reference Hebrews 2:3 above but the audience would be those* before the mysteries were revealed not the Body of Christ….ie those in the 4 gospels and Pentecost. ???
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 16, 2018 at 7:25 am
  Yes.
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joe August 16, 2018 at 10:10 am
Would this mean Paul was going outside his agreement to go to the gentiles?…assuming Paul wrote Hebrews.
(it appears my comment’s & q’s are getting through….)
Thank you
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 16, 2018 at 10:18 am
  Joe,
  It appears not. See Acts 9.15.
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joe August 16, 2018 at 10:17 am
Don,
It’s wording like this that makes it difficult for me to see Paul as the author. Paul was the sole recipient. There are too many uses of the words ‘we’ and ‘us’ here and other places. ….”attested to us by those who heard”? It was Paul who heard. ……I’ll re-read your essay. thanks
2 Therefore we must pay much closer attention to what we have heard, lest we drift away from it. 2 For since the message declared by angels proved to be reliable, and every transgression or disobedience received a just retribution, 3 how shall we escape if we neglect such a great salvation? It was declared at first by the Lord, and it was attested to us by those who heard, 4 while God also bore witness by signs and wonders and various miracles and by gifts of the Holy Spirit distributed according to his will.
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 16, 2018 at 10:21 am
  Joe,
  Paul is speaking as a Jew: we=Jews.
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George August 28, 2018 at 2:54 pm
Hi brother, i am studying Titus and was wondering why Paul would be preaching grace gospel on all the island of Crete where there would also be pentecost believers there also. And in general why would Jewish unbelievers in Jesus preach Jesus plus ot commandments, they are called Judaizers but these Judaizers did not believe in Jesus or did they but attatched the law to Jesus’s teachings, what is your definition of a judaizer and what does a judaizer really believe? Thanks
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 29, 2018 at 8:24 am
  George,
  See Acts 15.5. The Judaizers were primarily believers who thought one had to keep the Law of Moses.
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John February 13, 2019 at 9:21 pm
So, Hebrew believers would be part of the Body of Christ since they would have recognized Jesus not only as the Messiah but the perfect sacrifice to take away sin, correct??
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1. doctrine Post authorFebruary 14, 2019 at 8:59 am
  John,
  Jews who had believed the gospel of the kingdom were the audience in Hebrews. They were not members of the Church, the body of Christ. Paul is explaining to them the significance of Christ’s personage: He is the Creator, He is greater than angels, He is greater than Moses, He is a High Priest of a different order, no forgiveness of sins exists apart from Him, etc. They were warned to remain faithful, to endure to the end, just as Jesus had warned (Matthew 24.13; Revelation 2-3).
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  1. john February 16, 2019 at 12:09 am
    So, they were to believe in Christ’s identity. Believing in His ‘work’ was not required? Because they were Jews and not Gentiles? WHEN would Jews have to believe in the gospel of the grace of God?
    IF Paul was the author of Hebrews his gospel was known and the shed blood runs all through Hebrews – wouldn’t only the one gospel for all (since the Council) have been in effect when Hebrews was written?
    In the case of believing the message of the Kingdom Gospel, I’ve heard it said that Men have always been saved BY the blood, but
    only today are men saved by believing IN the blood (Rom.3:25).
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    1. doctrine Post authorFebruary 16, 2019 at 9:08 am
      John,
      The question of the gospel was settled at the Council of Jerusalem. But the believers in Hebrews were saved under the gospel of the kingdom and that program was still in effect (until the Romans destroyed the Temple in 70 A.D.). The 12 and Paul believed Christ would return in their lifetime. No one had any idea the Church would extend for nearly two millennia. They thought Christ would return for His Church and then the Day of the Lord would begin. So, we have two programs in tension. According to Paul’s gospel, salvation was an accomplished fact. But for Jews saved under the gospel of the kingdom, endurance until the end was required (Matthew 24.14; Revelation 2-3). This is why we have the warnings to the Jews in Hebrews (Hebrews 3.6, 14). This is also what the Hebrews 6 verses are all about which have puzzled many.
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John April 1, 2019 at 11:19 am
1. When do you think the book of Hebrews was written? Was the Temple still there or destroyed?
2. When was the Gospel of the Grace of God considered the only remaining Gospel? Immediately after the Council in AD51? Were there 2 Gospels after this Council? Was there a period of transition after the Council?
3. The Gospel, going forward, would be Paul’s Gospel for All who believe, Jew and Gentile. Are you saying that for those ALREADY saved under the Gospel of the Kingdom, no adjustment or response was really necessary – the additional news (learned from Paul) was simply for their knowledge and enjoyment? Therefore they would continue living under the requirements of the Gospel of the Kingdom?
4. What was occurring during AD51(Council) and AD70 (Destruction of Temple)? Current believers would continue in Kingdom program and New believers live by faith alone??
5. Did the Hebrews spoken to in the Book of Hebrews know of the shed blood of Christ? Definitely! Wether the temple was gone or not why would animal sacrifices continued or were they ceased [even if there is no mention of the sacrifices stopping, would it not make sense (do you have an opinion here) that the Levitical practice of animal sacrifice would no longer be required (the sacrifices were foreshadowing the finished work of Christ, looking back it was clear)??
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1. doctrine Post authorApril 2, 2019 at 12:55 pm
  John,
  1. Hebrews was written early, probably about 53 A.D. since that is where it is found in the four oldest codices.
  2. After the Council of Jerusalem, Paul’s gospel was the only valid gospel (Acts 15.11).
  3. Yes.
  4. Generally, yes, but see 2 Peter 3.14-16.
  5. Yes. The animal sacrifices continued until the destruction of the Temple in 70 A.D.
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  1. john April 2, 2019 at 8:39 pm
    Why would the animal sacrifices continue AFTER Paul’s Gospel to the Body of Christ recognized and revealed that even Israel’s sin was atoned for NOT by those animal sacrifices but rather, and all along, by the shed blood of Christ. Their righteousness was attained BY THE BLOOD OF CHRIST but by believing IN God who told them to bring an offering. Even in the Millennium there should be no reason for the blood of bulls and goats which could never take away sin.
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    1. doctrine Post authorApril 3, 2019 at 7:36 am
      John,
      The animal sacrifices continued because those in charge of the Temple did not believe Jesus was the Christ. The also sewed up the rent curtain. As for animals sacrifices in the Millennium, they will be offered but they are not propiatory.
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      1. John April 3, 2019 at 6:04 pm
        1. Those in charge didn’t know but those who DID know, would they still offer sacrifices and why?
        2. Not propiatory in Millennium? Meaning?
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        doctrine Post authorApril 3, 2019 at 6:12 pm
        John,
        1. Does it say they were offering sacrifices?
        2. Not a satisfaction or covering for sin.
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John April 2, 2019 at 8:56 pm
15 and regard the patience of our Lord as salvation; just as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given him, wrote to you,
Who was Peter referring to in that Paul also wrote to them – when did Paul write to ‘them’
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1. doctrine Post authorApril 3, 2019 at 7:34 am
  John,
  The most reasonable explanation: Hebrews.
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John May 20, 2019 at 9:05 am
Don, do you have a particular conviction on the eternal security of Old Testament and Kingdom saints in terms of their eternal security in light of verses like 1 Peter 1.5 and Hebrews 6.4-6. I’ve heard Grace Believers differ on this. Some say, in God’s foreknowledge He knows who really are saved and those WILL endure to the end and not take the mark of the beast – the unpardonable sin. But, then why the exhortation to endure anyway. Others speak of how, while they are believing and trusting, it is the power of God that KEEPS them and that, really, their complete salvation is realized at the end – their death or the coming kingdom whichever occurred first. Thoughts. I’d like to wrestle with these ideas and truths to form my convictions.
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1. doctrine Post authorMay 21, 2019 at 9:09 am
  John,
  When the gospel of he kingdom began to be preached the assumption was that the Jews would have responded. Had that occurred the Tribulation would have occurred and Christ would have return. Many verses indicate that the Twelve and Paul thought he Lord would return in their lifetime. Paul thought the Lord would come for His Church, the Tribulation would come, the Beast would appear, and Christ would return. Now it is clear that salvation for members of the Church, the body of Christ, is based wholly upon believing Paul’s gospel. Once one does this, his salvation is secure. This was not true for those who had believed the gospel of the kingdom. Jesus told these believers that the one who endured to the end would be saved and warned the Jewish assemblies in Revelation 2-3 about overcoming. This is what the warnings of Hebrews are all about. Last week I was teaching Hebrews 12 and read Hebrews 12.4. The KJV text reads, “you have not yet resisted unto blood, striving against sin.” But the Greek text reads, “the sin.” “The sin” is worshipping the Beast, taking his mark, committing the unforgivable sin. Until Rome destroyed the Temple and Jerusalem, both of God’s programs, Israel and Church, remained active. So kingdom believers were encouraged and warned to endure and remain faithful. The chastening of Hebrews is the Tribulation. Through it, God will cause Israel to repent. Thus, Hebrews was written—I think it was written early, about 53 A.D.—with the expectation that the Tribulation would come soon. Same for Revelation. When I write my commentary on Hebrews I will explain this in greater detail but that’s the summary. The difficulty is understanding the timing—which may not be possible—since God tells is what He is going to do but not when. The Twelve and Paul did not understand it. Paul thought the Lord would complete the Church in his lifetime and they all thought the Lord would return soon.
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john May 21, 2019 at 1:17 pm
Thank you Don.
Three Comments or questions:
1. You quote, “Until Rome destroyed the Temple and Jerusalem, both of God’s programs, Israel and Church, remained active.” Was this in 70 AD? Wasn’t the Gospel of the Grace of God the ONLY valid Gospel in operation since 51 AD? What do you mean, both programs remained, ‘active’?
2. In terms of eternal security for Kingdom saints, maybe there is not agreement in all grace teachers; because what does one do with verses like John 5:24, John 10:27-30, 1 John 5:10-13
3. Could God’s foreknowledge come into play here and those who endure to the end ARE eternally saved and those who do not endure to the end were NEVER saved but could partake in the presence of the Holy Spirit nonetheless. There is something involved in this idea that the saints were ‘kept by the power of God through their faith’ 1 Peter 1.5 and 1 Peter 1.9 where hey were receiving their salvation at the END of their faith. I’m still confused.
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1. doctrine Post authorMay 21, 2019 at 2:08 pm
  John,
  1. The gospel was settled at the Council. From that point people could only be saved by Paul’s gospel. But both programs continued.
  2. The only way I can reconcile this is that for one who goes through the Tribulation, under the gospel of the kingdom, one must endure to the end. Jesus was explicit about this in Matthew 24 and Revelation 2-3.
  3. The trial of faith Peter wrote about in 1 Peter 1 is the Tribulation.
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Brian Kelley May 27, 2019 at 3:43 pm
Don, although ancillary, what are your thoughts on Hebrews 13:2? Angels posing as humans fascinate many people, including me. Is this still applicable to today?
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1. doctrine Post authorMay 27, 2019 at 4:13 pm
  Brian,
  The audience was Jews so I would say entertaining angels primarily falls into God’s program for Israel. However, if an angel does not introduce or reveal himself, how does one know? We may be surprised.
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John June 30, 2019 at 10:36 pm
Still wrestling with the purpose of the book of Hebrews. It was written to Jewish people familiar with the Law of Moses and the Levitical System showing that the Sacrifice of Jesus was ‘better’. Why was it important for the written of Hebrews to write Hebrews? What was the intended purpose or desired result to the hearers of the letter? If the Law was good but Christ was better, did the written want the Jews to now see that keeping the law was now not necessary? And that the sacrifices all pointed to Christ? That’s an important question!
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1. doctrine Post authorJuly 1, 2019 at 11:55 am
  John,
  The primary purpose of Hebrews was to exhort Jews who had believed the gospel of the kingdom to remain faithful to Christ. The apostles thought the Lord world return in their lifetime and Hebrews was written early, probably about 53 A.D. For Jews who had believed the gospel of the kingdom, that meant they would go through the Tribulation. Jesus told those Jews that one would be saved if one endured to the end or as He said in Revelation 2-3 “overcome.” This meant remaining faithful to Christ and not worshipping the Beast and taking his mark. This explains the many warnings in Hebrews. When the Tribulation does come, Jews will again look to it for instruction.
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john July 2, 2019 at 5:42 pm
Will there be animal sacrifices again along with water baptism, in the millennium? Will the Kingdom program simply resume after the Rapture?
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1. doctrine Post authorJuly 2, 2019 at 7:12 pm
  John,
  Can’t think of any passages indicating water baptism in the kingdom but there will definitely be animal sacrifices according to Ezekiel.
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  1. john July 2, 2019 at 9:53 pm
    What will the purposes of the animal sacrifices in the millennium? Same as during the old testament only more as a memorial? Are they to do the ‘work’ required from ‘faith’ in the God who says He requires them? Even though it is the blood of Christ having now been shed that saves them, even as it was the blood of Christ not yet shed that saved them in the old testament? Correct??
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    1. doctrine Post authorJuly 3, 2019 at 7:55 am
      John,
      The Bible is not clear as to the purpose of the animal sacrifices during the Millennium. Most think they are a memorial. See https://www.gotquestions.org/millennial-sacrifices.html
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      1. john July 3, 2019 at 5:41 pm
        That was very helpful and thanks so much. You are in agreement with some of my other Mid Acts dispensationalists who would say that, definitely, there will be anima sacrifices during Christ’s thousand year reign on earth.
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John July 8, 2019 at 11:58 am
There seems to be dis agreement even among Pauline people as to whether the book of Hebrews is for Members of the Body of Christ or Kingdom saints. You say the message of Hebrews is to show the Jews the fulfillment of the law. Wouldn’t the readers of Hebrews (some of them) come to believe in Christ and a His work on the cross. Wasn’t Hebrews written and read during the dispensation of the grace of God? I understand that those already saved under the Kingdom Program reading Hebrews would be heading into the tribulation, but any who recognized Christ’s finished cross work, would become members of the Body of Christ. Am I accurate in saying what I said? Comments?
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1. doctrine Post authorJuly 8, 2019 at 1:14 pm
  John,
  Only Paul’s gospel was valid after the Council of Jerusalem. Hebrews was written to Jews saved by the gospel of the kingdom. When Paul wrote it, he thought the Church would be wrapped up in his lifetime and that the Tribulation would soon occur. The warnings in Hebrews are like the warnings Jesus gave in Matthew 24 and Revelation 2-3. Therefore, Hebrews was written to kingdom saints.
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John July 10, 2019 at 6:01 pm
At the Jerusalem Council the Apostles agreed to continue preaching the Gospel of the Kingdom while Paul would preach the Gospel of the grace of God. It would make sense to me if those Kingdom saints would continue to preach the Kingdom message perhaps even until their death, accommodating the transitioning away from the Kingdom program to the Mystery program.
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1. doctrine Post authorJuly 10, 2019 at 6:35 pm
  John,
  No, the gospel of the kingdom ended at the Council. Peter stated that Jews had to bed saved by Paul’s gospel (Acts 15.11).
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John July 11, 2019 at 12:12 am
““And when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that was given unto me, they gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship; that we should go unto the heathen [Gentiles] and they unto the circumcision” Acts 15.9
This verse says that Peter, James and John were to go (continue) to go to the circumcision. If there was no longer a Kingdom program from that day forward, what message would those Apostles carry and for how long? Until 70 AD?
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1. doctrine Post authorJuly 11, 2019 at 6:58 am
  John,
  They would proclaim Paul’s gospel. Paul wrote in Galatians 1 that anyone who proclaimed a different gospel was accursed. Paul’s gospel is the only gospel that will save until the Rapture.
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2. Bobbi Wendelin July 17, 2019 at 2:30 pm
  One thing I’ve noted is that there is a gospel preached in the Acts period that is called “the gospel of God. it is called this in Rom.1:1,15:16, 2 Cor.11:7, 1 Thess.2:2,8,9, and 1 Peter 4:17.
  Paul defines it in Rom.1: (is speaks of Christ and his resurrection)
  1 ¶Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, SEPERATED UNTO THE GOSPEL OF GOD, 2(Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,)
  3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
  4 And declared to be the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:
  5 By whom we have received grace and apostleship, for obedience to the faith among all nations, for his name:
  6 Among whom are ye also the called of Jesus Christ.
  The difference in this gospel and the gospel of the kingdom, is THE RESURRECTION of Christ(which was unknown in the gospel accts.) Thus if you read what Peter preached in Acts 2-4… It is similar. They are preaching Jesus is the Christ of God that was promised and that God has raised him up. Thus Peter teaches “the offence of the cross” to Jews. Paul is going to the Jew first as there is a remnant in this period, outside of Jerusalem that are to be saved by grace Rom.11:5. They have to believe in the resurrection first, for their hope lies in resurrection. (They have to repent and be baptized.) WHICH accounts for why Paul baptized a few.
  Jesus gave Jews the sign of the prophet Jonas…Matt.12:39,16:4, and Luke 11:29. Thus they have to believe he is “The Christ” and that God raised him up.
  Then I believe Paul teaches the gospel of Christ to “stablish them”.
  There is a difference in the gospels preached. I don’t think the gospel of the kingdom includes Christ’s resurrection for they did not have the understanding until after he has RISEN. Mk.9:31,32, Luke 9:44,45,
  Jn.10:1-19, Acts 1:3. In Acts 28:20… The hope of Israel here, I think, is RESURRECTION.
  Just a thought …
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  1. doctrine Post authorJuly 17, 2019 at 3:18 pm
    Bobbi,
    Peter preached the resurrection (Acts 2.24-35) but his understanding of its significance was that Jesus was alive and could return and establish His kingdom on earth if the nation repented. He knew nothing of the significance Christ’s death and resurrection with regard to paying for sins—not for the sins of Jews and certainly not for the sins of Gentiles.
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    1. Bobbi Wendelin July 17, 2019 at 10:34 pm
      Yes that’s right Don. Peter did not know the significance of it yet . I believe Paul taught them the significance of it in his “my gospel” which is the gospel of Christ but at a later time. (As he states in Gal 2)
      If you read Peter’s address in Acts 2, and compare it with Paul’s “gospel of God” in Rom.1, they hold similar truths. Peter adds repent and be baptized, but is more of a reproof of the offense of the cross. Both address Jesus being the Christ, the seed of David that was afore time promised that God fulfilled his promise.
      Of note one is addressing the circumcision, and the other the uncircumcision. Both address the RESURRECTION, which the Jews hope was in! In Acts Paul started “as his manner was”… In the synagogue… And believers were separated out. Thus leaving unbelievers in the synagogue. A good place to see this is In action, is Acts 19:9. I believe the IDENTIFY OF JESUS CHRIST and his RESURRECTION is the most essential in the gospel of God. If one did not believe Jesus was the Christ, and was risen, they could not receive the gospel of Christ or of grace. (Which Romans gives detailed doctrine on to “stablish” believers.
      When one follows Paul through Acts, compare Peters sermon on Acts 2 to Paul’s in Acts 13:26-37! Stunningly similar except Paul adds a bit of the gospel of Christ at the end. However, Paul is preaching in the SYNAGOGUE, to Men of Israel vs.26…children of the stock of Abraham… and Those that feared God (Gentiles)here. Vs.38,39 introduces forgiveness of sins for the first time.
      The gospel of the circumcision is Peters preaching “the gospel of God + repentance and baptism (gospel of the kingdom). This would be Acts 2:29-39. But these believers Peter preached to, I think, are the “church of the firstborn” in Heb.12:23.
      The gospel of the uncircumcision is the gospel of God(according to prophecy) + gospel of Christ(according to the mystery….grace). This can be seen in Acts 13:23-39.
      Hope this is helpful and clear. There is a beautiful unfolding of God’s salvation in these scriptures. This is but a small portion and I haven’t gotten it completely right but I love to work on it.
      Peace brethren & God bless you. ?
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      1. Bobbi Wendelin July 17, 2019 at 10:56 pm
        One thing I learned from a brother who teaches is that Acts …is not written by Paul! It’s written by Luke… Hee hee:) So one can view Acts from both sides of the cross.
        No one probably has a perfect view but we can sure study to try… :)
        This site is excellent Don and I would share another one too as I have others on the site as well.
        http://absolutetruthkjv.com/id65.html
        I try to study out things presented to see if the things are so. Acts 17:11. Hope it is a blessing.
        Grace and Peace to all!
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        doctrine Post authorJuly 18, 2019 at 3:40 pm
        Bobbi,
        The main message of Acts is to explain to Jews why the kingdom of God did not come. But Paul wrote 1 and 2 Thessalonians, 1 and 2 Corinthians, Romans, Galatians during the Acts period. So Paul taught all the major Church doctrines during that time. Not familiar with this gentleman but do not understand how one can be KJV only.
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        Bobbi July 18, 2019 at 6:50 pm
        I agree Don on your Acts perspective. What got me to studying Paul’s epistles in accord with Acts was all the things that differ in the early written one’s that you’ve mentioned above and the latter. Also there is the matter of the “Israel of God” …who is that? There is so much to discover! Though I may not be right on everything and will always need to study, I am grateful for brethren who teach the word and doctrine “according to Godliness”, which is Paul’s doctrine.
        As far as KJV only, I generally disagree with the teaching as it deny’s word studies in the Hebrew and greek. I have learned many interesting things in word studies in this way though I have to be careful. I use the KJV myself as I love the language of it and the english words are easily studied for reference and meaning too. I just have studied with it alot and am getting to know the verses.
        Most grace preachers I’ve heard today that understand Paul’s ministry are kjv only. Why?… I don’t know either. One can’t help that, though one can avoid those type of lessons. We “walk by faith not by sight”…2 Cor. 5:7… I guess there are folks who want reassurance that they have God’s words in english? I never considered anything like it personally and don’t have trouble with that, thank you Lord! ?
        Also if anyone hears something off on one of the videos, I would just recognize it and
        put it away. No one is perfect as yet I’m sure, till the Lord comes! I just like to be learning and growing in the knowledge of God and be hopefully rightly dividing the word of truth into the Lord. Because as one preacher says lol…”all flesh is As grass”! Is.40:6 We need to lean on the Lord’s understanding. Ps.119:25, 1 Cor.2:16, Phil.1:27, Eph.1:17, 4:13, Col.1:10.
        Many know to study the things that differ but I have seen and had questions beyond just law and grace… Peter and Paul…etc. This it takes some digging in and help from the Holy Spirit ! We are so lucky to have the Lord’s Spirit…and the completed Bible. Off times I wonder we forget that saints in those days had mostly the OT. We have it all!
        We are a very blessed people to have all this! Praise the Lord brother!
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        doctrine Post authorJuly 18, 2019 at 7:21 pm
        Bobbi,
        Thanks. The KJV stuff is really weird. I do not accept some of the assumptions of textual criticism which supports the critical text. But to say that the KJV is perfect is not rational. Textual criticism is complex and we cannot know what the autographs read. However, God has given us many checks on His word by the thousands of manuscripts. Despite the many variant readings we have a sound text. The variant readings are insignificant in terms of any major doctrine. The Israel of God is Israel. I wrote an article on this: “Israel” as a Technical Term if you’re interested. The Romans Catholic Church and the reformed theologians in Protestantism have done great damage and have confused many millions. They teach the Church is “new” Israel.
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        Bobbi Wendelin July 18, 2019 at 10:18 pm
        Yeah… I’m with you on textual criticism. It is complicated! Is way above me. Thank God they don’t usually rant on the KJV ism in every lesson… I’m very comfortable with trusting God’s book. He is God after all haha haha ! People get saved today (I did)so God’s book is holy still! We need to trust him.
        I will re-read that Israel article, thanks! I wondered about that term, “the Israel of God”. I’d realized they were in the “last days” according to scripture in early Acts… Which made me wonder about things like the Ez. 37 prophecy and wondered if God was doing some of that in those times. No, I know the church is not Israel. One writer said he thinks the remnant in Rom.11:5 that Paul was called to go to is the Israel of God. I was thinking that would explain few things in Corinthians. However I’m still not sure.
        Noting of course that many things (like Peter quoting Joel 2 in Acts 2) are not fully fulfilled but will be future yet.
        Going to read that article on Israel.
        God bless you!
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        cpb July 20, 2019 at 3:46 am
        The Spirit can reveal God’s truth through any of the translations. In His wisdom he did not give the church “tablets of stone” as he did the Jews. If there were one perfect translation then we would venerate it and maybe miss Jesus altogether. That’s just what humans do.
        Proverbs 11:14 “…but in the multitude of counselors there is safety”
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Craig July 11, 2019 at 8:01 am
Don, this is a little confusing. If Peter and the Eleven stopped preaching the gospel of the kingdom after the Jerusalem council and only taught the gospel of grace, would they not have been soundly rejected by the majority of the Jews, called traitors, etc?
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1. doctrine Post authorJuly 11, 2019 at 8:06 am
  Craig,
  The vast majority of Jews already viewed the 12 and those who believed Jesus was the Messiah as traitors.
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Craig July 19, 2019 at 6:24 am
Not very many Christians realize, at least not the ones I have talked to, that Peter in Acts 2 was handing down a murder indictment against the Jews for what they did to their Messiah. The Jews were stricken and asked what must they do about this. Peter said repent and be baptized (for this crime). A lot of Christians erroneously believe this was the birth of the church/Christianity and thus they push baptism as necessary.
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1. doctrine Post authorJuly 19, 2019 at 7:46 am
  Craig,
  The vast majority in Christendom appear to have never read Acts 2-3. It is all Jewish. Peter addressed Jew only. How anyone can believe the Church began in Acts 2 reveals a gross ignorance and misunderstanding of the Scriptures. God promised the Jews the Holy Spirit (Ezekiel 26; Jeremiah 31; Joel 2). That’s what occurred at Pentecost. God’s revelation and creation of the Church, the body of Christ, where Jew and Gentile are equal in Christ, indweldt by the Holy Spirit, remain future (Paul). If people could learn this one thing most of the confusion in Christendom would cease.
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Craig August 30, 2019 at 8:18 am
Don, I recently heard a pastor say concerning Hebrews 10:26 that its talking about those who profess to be a christian, join a church, etc and then turn their backs on Jesus. Is this correct? I thought it was about Hebrew believers who were on the fence about Jesus and wanted to go back to Judaism.
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1. doctrine Post authorAugust 30, 2019 at 12:35 pm
  Craig,
  You are correct; the pastor is wrong. The book is addressed to Jews to warn them to remain faithful to Christ.
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Craig October 9, 2019 at 11:15 am
Don, I’m having a discussion with a Mormon. He believes there are modern day prophets. I gave him Hebrews 1:1,2. How do I explain those verses?
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1. doctrine Post authorOctober 9, 2019 at 12:24 pm
  Craig,
  Probably the better approach is Colossians 1.25 where Paul stated that he completed the Scriptures. His was the last word in God’s revelation to mankind. This eliminates the Book of Mormon as well as “prophets.” In 1 Corinthians 13, Paul stated that the gift of prophecy would cease. It did when Paul received all his revelations.
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2. Bobbi October 9, 2019 at 3:03 pm
  Hi Craig,
  We get them often here. One thing I always say is it you want to talk about God, we will need to use his book… None of their so called prophets are in the Bible. God’s book alone is holy.
  Last time this young girl opened HER book and said ” mine even has a picture of Jesus… ”
  Oh boy… I told her there are no pictures of Jesus honey… :(
  If they will discuss the Bible, which is God’s word … There is hope.
  Is.55:10 For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater:
  11 So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it.
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  1. Craig October 10, 2019 at 6:11 am
    Thanks Bobbi. I will remember this next time to tell them to only use the Bible. I have heard them say that there is mentioned a Joseph in the Bible and they believe it refers to Joseph Smith.They often say that they have another testament of Jesus Christ. I tell them them Jesus only has one testimony and Gospel.
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    1. Bobbi October 10, 2019 at 2:28 pm
      Hi Craig…
      This, that they say Joseph in the Bible could refer to Joseph Smith, makes no sense…. IF ONE IS HONEST.
      Joseph Smith
      1805-1844
      There are NO other testaments of Jesus Christ referred to in the Bible.
      Gal.1:8 But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.
      9 As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.
      They preach “another gospel” altogether. If it’s not in THE BIBLE, it’s another Jesus.
      God bless you whilst you stand for the faith…💖👑🙏
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      1. Craig October 11, 2019 at 6:15 am
        What Joseph Smith did was write his own translation of the Bible (JST). Genesis 50 which talks about Joseph of Egypt, ends at verse 26. Smith added a few more verses saying: ” a seer will I raise up out of the fruit of thy loins, and unto him will I give power to bring forth my word unto the seed of thy loins. And that seer will I bless, and they that seek to destroy him shall be confounded; for this promise I give unto you; for I will remember you from generation to generation; and his name shall be called Joseph.” That seer is Smith according to the Mormons.
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joe November 10, 2019 at 12:37 pm
Doctrine, You’ve probably addressed this somewhere else but this does not sound like something Paul would write. (Hebrews 2:3-4). The salvation heard by those with the Lord was not 1 Cor 15:1-4
Also, Jeremiah 31:31 and Hebrews 8:8 are so similar. Why would Paul be talking about OT things to members of the ‘new creation’….neither Jew or gentile?
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1. doctrine Post authorNovember 10, 2019 at 12:54 pm
  Joe,
  I address Hebrews 2.3-4 in the article. Paul wrote Hebrews early, right after 2 Thessalonians. The issue of Israel’s repentance was still in play. Paul thought the Lord would return in His lifetime—the Rapture would occur and then the Tribulation and Christ’s 2nd Advent.
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Richard Phillips August 16, 2020 at 6:02 pm
I’ve just finished reading the Book of Hebrews.
I’m no scholar but Paul did write it!
A matter of credibility- a persecutor teaching his former teachers?!
Basic ‘psychological’ writing…
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Brian Kelley September 1, 2020 at 10:11 pm
Don, would you agree with this explanation of Hebrews 6:4-6?: “These scriptures are speaking about unbelievers, who have heard the Gospel, have experienced the convicting power of the Holy Spirit, and have had the opportunity to get saved; but have deliberately rejected Christ as their personal Savior. Carefully notice that the scripture says they were once “enlightened” not saved… They have “tasted” of the heavenly gift, but they did not consume it… So, clearly, Hebrews 6:4-6 is speaking about the unsaved.” This seems off to me given that Paul wrote to the Jews.
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1. doctrine Post authorSeptember 2, 2020 at 8:33 am
  Brian,
  Hebrews was written to saved Jews but also appeals to Jews who have not yet accepted Jesus as the Messiah. I am about to start a book on Hebrews and will address these kinds of questions. Jesus told the Jews of His generation, who anticipated going into the Tribulation, that they had to endure to the end to be saved (Matthew 10.22, 24.13).
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Randy Farmer April 9, 2021 at 3:03 am
I read this article mostly trying to find more information about Luke. It is considered “certain” that Luke wrote according to one calculation 26.7 % of the accepted canon of the New Testament, simply by contributing the gospel of Luke and Acts, to his authorship or writings. . Some want to suggest that he (Luke) wrote considerable of the epistles attributed to Paul. I have not yet read much proof on this but I did read the comments about Paul’s bonds (in the comments offered here) and have long considered that the actual writing (pen and papyrus) would have been very difficult for Paul, due to the terrible conditions his body had gone through. It is also difficult for me to grasp whether or not Luke or anyone who was considered an amanuensis would not have used some of their own personal intellect as well, though I know that they were usually slaves and they were highly trained to be verbatim. This is simply to say, that accepting that Luke had at least a “hand” in the formation of Hebrews seems reasonable. The aura of the Holy Spirit in the production of any of these works I consider to be much akin to that of several believers prayerfully seeking truth from God in any matter when there is physical and psychic evidence that the Holy Spirit is present. It only seems fitting that the production of any of Paul’s writings were as much influenced by Luke as much as Luke’s writings by Paul. I do not mean to complicate the issue. It only seems that some think that Paul and Luke were “together” as employee/employer (common to the time) and then became more spiritually intimate after their conversion and passage of time in prayer and production of God’s New Revelation to both Jew and Gentile. Long hours as cell mates has made many become practically one in thought, sometimes with hours of ironing out wrinkles. At any rate, this would likely eliminate much of a boundary between the two dis-connections of the “kingdom of heaven gospel” with the “Grace only through the finished work- gospel for the Gentiles.” I only suggest that there is only one real Gospel and that being a Personal connection with God (whatever Hebrew term these two may have enjoined in their wrtiings) is possible only through one Person Jesus Christ the Son of God. Luke may be, one of the few writers of the New Testament that created the Jewish Jesus connection with or to the Gentile way of receiving Jesus. (At least historically he recorded the process.) To give Luke some credit for that flow described in Hebrews does not seem contrary to either the personality of Paul of Luke, who portrayed unique humility in not accepting credit for their unique and needed contributions to the Body of Christ. Could it have been a dual effort? Is there any thing in scripture that makes co-authors (human) of any of its writings disturbing or contrary to the true goal of the Gospel reaching the most, with the best of God’s writings for all? I am trying to write a novel giving Luke as much consideration for his contributions as possible. I do not even want, what I openly declare as novel work, to go contrary to the true spirit or nature of the human characters, much less the character and nature of God or His Son as manifest by His Holy Spirit. Trying to piece together a good characterization of Luke is very challenging to say the least. Many of the less known disciples and their doings before and after Pentecost is sketchy. I truly appreciate your, and “Allen’s” scholarly research and preparation of both possible authors. I feel like I am back in kindergarten understanding-wise after over 52 years of studying the words of our Lord. Seminary just drilled these holes in all my concrete answers, that I am still trying to fill in retirement. Hah! I am a slow and slothful learner.
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Wayne Steury January 10, 2022 at 5:44 pm
Thanks for this thorough presentation. This is the best defense of Pauline authorship I have read. Thanks.
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Anders March 6, 2023 at 2:41 am
My pastor is currently teaching thru the letter to the Hebrews. Of course, the first question that caused debate was the question of authorship. Your article has helped me much. One of my friends uses the fact that the author only quotes from the LXX as an argument against Paul. You don’t take that issue up in your article. Could this indicate that the letter was intended for Jews of the dispersion, not the Jews in Jerusalem?
A related question, if I may: did Jews in the first century understand the Hebrew Scriptures that were read in the Synagogues? I’m thinking of Luke 4:16,17.
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 6, 2023 at 8:18 am
  Anders,
  Most quotations of the Old Testament in the New Testament come from the LXX. It was the Bible used in the time of Jesus and Paul. So the objection has no bearing on Pauline authorship. As for the Luke question, many Scriptures were understood. The Jews understood God would send a Prophet like Moses, a Messiah. They understood God would give them an eternal homeland which the Messiah would rule. They understood they would become the greatest nation on earth. They understood God would judge the earth in the Day of the Lord. But how all this would transpire and how God would solve the problem of sin was not understood. The Messianic prophecies and passages were especially cryptic and Jewish scholars argued over their meaning. For example, they had no understanding of Isaiah 53 (Jews today still do not understand this passage). Cf. Acts 8.26-35.
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Anders March 16, 2023 at 11:37 am
As I studied the question of Hebrew’s authorship I came across the argument that the LXX was actually never quoted by Jesus. The LXX that we have today was the one revised by Origen around 240 AD. Origen felt free to “correct” the Greek text where he felt there was an error and he “harmonized” his revision to fit the NT quotes. He changed the LXX text to read word-for-word that which was recorded in the NT. That, according to this theory, explains why the LXX seems so accurate. You do not mention this argument, so I assume you reject it. I would be glad to know why. Thanks.
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1. doctrine Post authorMarch 20, 2023 at 10:24 am
  Anders,
  Most OT quotes in the NT are from the LXX. Thus, they quoted from a document older than the Masoretic Text, and before Origen did revision. This is not an area of expertise of mine, but you might want to read Marcos, The Septuagint in Context: Introduction to the Greek Version of the Bible.
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Sue Marshall June 5, 2023 at 1:08 pm
In Hebrews could you explain what was meant by ‘ Entering His Rest ‘ ( Hebrews 4: 1-13)
Many Thanks
Sue
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1. doctrine Post authorJune 5, 2023 at 5:01 pm
  Sue,
  In the original context, “entering God’s rest” was entering the promised land. Moses’ generation refused and died in the desert. In Paul’s context it means entering the kingdom, the earthly kingdom God promised Israel. To those Paul addressed, to enter the kingdom meant repenting and believing Jesus is the Messiah.
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Bahate November 4, 2023 at 11:02 am
Don,
Thank you for this work.
I can personally deduce and conclude that it is Paul whi wrote Hebrews.
However, I am also of the view that Paul’s gospel he preached to the Jews was different from the gospel he preached to the Gentiles.
Whereas to the Gentiles, he preached the gospel he received from the Risen Lord (the Gospel of the Grace of God) that Jesus Christ died for their sins, was buried and rose again; to the Hebrews he preached the Gospel of the kingdom (that Jesus was the Messiah).
As it can be seen from Hebrews 4:2 which reads: “For unto us was the gospel preached,” . That tells that Paul was referring to the Gospel that was preached by John the Baptist, Jesus as well as the Twelve Apostles.
I can be sure that this letter to the Hebrews was written with the same purpose of evangelizing the kingdom gospel for the Jews and that the same letter will serve an important role during the time when it will be preached again until all Israel will be saved.
And I believe, the Holy Spirit instructed Paul to write this with the purpose that it will serve in future after the Church age is complete.
Grace and Peace
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Will December 2, 2023 at 1:16 pm
Author Bob Anderson has raised the possibility of the author being Paul’s closest friend, Silas. This proposal is outlined in the Wiki articles. I wonder what you think of this.
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1. doctrine Post authorDecember 3, 2023 at 2:14 pm
  Will,
  Could not say. Luke is more likely. He was with Paul the most.
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cigmd December 29, 2023 at 2:09 pm
I’m reading your book Paul: Apostle of Secrets on the chapter about Hebrews:
1. How do we know Paul waited to write the episodes until after the Jerusalem council??
Was it worth from Corinth?
2. Was it written to Israel leadership ( Pharisees, Saducees, Sanhedrin Council), the Jews saved by the kingdom Gospel, or the Judaizers?
3. Hoi apostes: where do your get “away from Italy ” in your translation ? Shouldn’t it be “those from Italy”?
Page 200
Kosmikos does not appear to be in Hebrew 9:11 but is in Titus 2:12
Oregetai not in Hebrews 11:16?
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1. doctrine Post authorJanuary 1, 2024 at 10:50 am
  Cigmd,
  1. I do not know where Hebrews was written from. Are you suggesting Paul wrote Hebrews before 51 A.D.? Possible, but it seems to me that Paul did not begin writing letters until the question of the gospel was settled.
  2. Primarily to Jews saved under the kingdom gospel although it spilled over to Jews in general.
  3. Do you refer to Greet all those leading you and all the saints. Those from Italy [οἱ ἀπὸ τῆς Ἰταλίας] greet you on p. 163?
  I cannot find anything on p. 200 about kosmikos. ?? ὀρέγομαι is the same as ὀρέγω in Hebrews 11.16. page 165 See https://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/heb/11/1/t_conc_1144016.
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cigmd January 7, 2024 at 7:43 am
How do we reconcile Paul’s writing of Hebrews 26-31 with his pronouncement of punishment in 1 Cor 5:1-5.
It seems that Paul does not deny that he is a member of the body of Christ and he is deliberately sinning. It appears excommunication from the church for the hope of repentance us the judgement. And that is had assurance of salvation.
Doesn’t v5 contradict Hebrews 10:27
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1. doctrine Post authorJanuary 7, 2024 at 10:18 am
  Cigmd,
  In 1 Corinthians 5.1-5, Paul addressed members of the Church, the body of Christ, one member in particular. Paul decree this one was to be delivered to Satan, for Satan to kill him due to his sin (cf. 1 Corinthians 11.29-32) so he might be saved at the day of Christ, the Rapture and when God judges members of His Church for rewards. The “salvation” of which Paul wrote for him concerned the man’s works, preserving his rewards, not his soul. The Hebrews 10 passage is addressed to Jews who had believed the gospel of the kingdom and Jews who had not believed. Paul expected both of them to go through the Tribulation (the judgment of verse 27 is the Tribulation). Jesus warned Jewish believers that they must endure to the end to be saved (Matthew 23.13), that is, not take the mark of the Beast. “The end” means either His return or their execution by the Beast for refusing his mark. So two different groups and two different circumstances. Therefore, no contradiction.
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  1. cigmd January 7, 2024 at 5:20 pm
    The “salvation” of which Paul wrote for him concerned the man’s works, preserving his rewards, not his soul.
    I am not understanding this point.
    “that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.”
    1. Is the Spirit our works?
    2. Was this man (body of Christ) still capable of earning rewards?
    -in 1 Cor 3:13-15 Paul discusses our words being tested through fire
    -is this what you mean by saving his spirit (fruits of the Spirit)
    3. So the soul and spirit are each judged? Or only the spirit is judged and not the soul?
    4. Does sanctification occur only to the spirit or the soul as well.
    5. Does justification only occur to the soul and not the spirit?
    How does 1 John 5:16-18
    -what are the sins that lead to death and do not lead to death?
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    1. doctrine Post authorJanuary 8, 2024 at 10:19 am
      Cigmd,
      Paul is saying it was better, more merciful, for the man to die than to continue in his sin for if the latter, he would forfeit reward and recognition by Christ he had gained. The man’s sin was destroying his flesh. Paul wished for his spirit to be spared. Better for him to die than continue as he was. As long as we have our present bodies we continue to sin. Only removal of the body ends sin. This occurs at death or at the Rapture. At the Rapture, we receive new bodies, uncontaminated by Adam’s sin. The sin to death is the blasphemy of the Holy Spirit, which is to worship and take the mark of the Beast. Doing this dooms one. This is why John says one should not pray concerning it. Once done, it cannot be undone. This is why Paul wrote in Hebrews 6 that one who falls away (takes the Beast’s mark) cannot be renewed to repentance. The Beast’s mark somehow will change a person so he cannot repent.
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Gideon Alfa February 1, 2024 at 5:34 am
Hi Don,
Pls, Who is Paul referring to in Hebrew 2:6-8
Who was made a little lower than the Angels
Is it Jesus or Adam
Pls I need your help
Thank you
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1. doctrine Post authorFebruary 1, 2024 at 8:12 am
  Gideon,
  Mankind.
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DJ April 1, 2024 at 9:36 pm
“ The Mosaic Law remains for Israel fulfilled through the New Covenant”
What is this supposed to look like in practical terms today for Jewish converts? Are they supposed to have different directives than gentile believers? Thanks
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1. doctrine Post authorApril 2, 2024 at 3:38 pm
  DJ,
  Jews today are saved the same as Gentiles.
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DJ April 1, 2024 at 9:52 pm
“ Hebrews was written—I think it was written early, about 53 A.D.—with the expectation that the Tribulation would come soon. Same for Revelation. ”
Confused. How could the Apostles and Paul preach to the Hebrews the details of the Apocalypse (mark of beast, 7 years Trib) before it was revealed and written ?
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1. doctrine Post authorApril 2, 2024 at 3:39 pm
  DJ,
  Revelation was written early, not in the 90s but in the 50s. Paul wrote he completed the Scriptures (Colossians 1.25). Paul died about 67-68 A.D.
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DJ April 1, 2024 at 10:09 pm
“ LXX. It was the Bible used in the time of Jesus and Paul.”
Why didn’t Hebrews have their own version?
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1. doctrine Post authorApril 2, 2024 at 3:40 pm
  DJ,
  They did but most of the world spoke Greek. It was the common language.
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Fred Allen May 7, 2024 at 2:52 pm
I am among those who have not concluded, as have you, “game over.” Nor do I find the reservations concerning Paul’s authorship of Hebrews “sickly” or “feeble.” The uniqueness of the letter to the Hebrews is readily apparent, no matter to what we might attribute this. To assume that only Paul had the spiritual insights to pen this letter is to ignore the capabilities of a number of early church spokesmen. For my part, I lean toward Apollos as a legitimate candidate, but that, as are all other perspectives, is speculation. In this case, I think, dogmatic conclusions are unsupported. Perhaps we would do well to side with Origen (AD 185? – 254?), who said, “Who wrote the epistle of Hebrews? In truth, only God knows!” Evidence for the letter’s divine inspiration is abundantly found in the text itself not in an absent signature. If, at the end of the age, Paul does indeed come forward as the author, I shall wholeheartedly thank him for one of the most beautiful expositions ever written.
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1. doctrine Post authorMay 9, 2024 at 6:51 pm
  Fred,
  The evidence of Pauline authorship is overwhelming. As for Origen’s statement, Origen stated numerous times throughout his writings that Paul authored Hebrews. Origen’s quote you cite has been dishonestly twisted by scholars and opponents of Pauline authorship to portray the opposite of what Origen meant. This is clearly seen when the quote is rendered in its entirety and when it is compared with Origen’s other statements. Origen meant he did not know who penned Hebrews for its style is different from Paul. But Origen had no doubt Paul was its author. You might be interested in reading this fairly recent study: https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/new-testament-studies/article/origen-on-pauls-authorship-of-hebrews/EE7CB61DBFC2EF4C7667E1B3B03D8654/share/b868b47edf6105709404e1482edd4463bbac1a65.
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1 Corinthians 15.1-4 ✝ Romans 4.4-5

Who Wrote Hebrews?

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